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AIPMT 2011 Paper Solved

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1. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are

Axillary buds Root buds

Flower buds Shoot buds

2. Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a

Hot spring Sulphur rock

Cattle yard Polluted stream

3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?

Angiosperms Fungi

Insects Birds

4. Archegoniophore is present in

Funaria Marchantia

Chara Adiantum

5.Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

Smaller and have smaller sex organs Smaller but have larger sex organs

Larger but have smaller sex organs Larger and have larger sex organs

6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in

Pinus Polytrichum

Adiantum Marchantia

7. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

lysosome vacuole

Golgi apparatus plastid

8. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

ribosomes chloroplast

mitochondria chromoplast

9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

cell wall plasma membrane

nucleus ribosomes

10. Mutations can be induced with

gamma radiations infra red radiations

IAA ethylene

Test your Biology

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MCAT Practice Tests

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1. Which of the following statement complements this statement.

“Metabolism is the process by which

a cell duplicates itself.”

fluid moves through a membrane.”

a cell defends the organism from outside attackers.”

an organism produces and uses energy.”

2. What is organization of life ?

Organization of life may be explained as the manner in which smaller

components of any structure, system or organism are arranged in a

hierarchy to coordinate with each other towards a goal.

The various levels of biological organization are as follows:

Atoms——-> Molecules and Compounds ——-> Living Cells—->

Tissues——–> Organs ———> System ——–> Individual——>

Population——-> Community——> Ecosystem——> Biosphere

3. Briefly explain the difference between mitosis and meiosis.

NUCLEUS

IN PROPHASE

IN METAPHASE

IN ANAPHASE

DAUGHTER CELLS

PLOID CONDITIONS

4. Identify the option from the following list that correctly completes the

statement: “Mitosis is the process by which

fluid moves through a membrane.”

a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells.”

a cell divides itself into four completely new cells.”

the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells.”

5. Identify the option from the following list that states the stages of mitosis in

the correct order:

Anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.

Prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, prophase II,

metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II.

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase.

Anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, cytokinesis.

6. Identify the option from the following list that correctly completes the statement:

“Meiosis is the process by which

the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells.”

fluid moves through a membrane.”

a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells.”

a cell divides itself into four completely new cells.”

7. Which of the following is not a practical way to isolate human gene that

mutates to cause a disease?

Sequence DNAs from people with and without the genetic mutation

to determine the differences

Use an antibody to isolate the mRNA for the protein involved, make a

cDNA copy, and then use this cDNA to probe a genomic library

Compare the DNA of a person with the disease (which has a deleted

chromosome) with the DNA from a person without the disease to see

if the latter has extra sequences, which contain the target gene

Use DNA markers that are closely linked to the mutant gene and then

isolate the gene by molecular methods

Isolate DNAs from people with and without the disease and insert each

into cloning vectors to see what proteins are made

8. Mutational “hot spots” in human DNA …….

always occur in genes that are transcribed

involve long stretches on nucleotides.

occur where there are triplet repeats, such as CTG

are very rare in genes that code for proteins

are common at cytosines that have been modified to methylcytosine

9. Newborn genetic screening for PKU …

is very expensive

must be done during the first day of an infant’s life

detects phenyiketones in urine

has not led to the prevention of mental retardation resulting

from this disorder

uses bacterial growth to detect excess phenylalanine blood

10. Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing…

cannot be done with PCR

involves hybridization to rRNA

can be done only on eggs or sperm

detects only mutant and not normal alleles

utilizes restriction enzymes and polymorphic site

11. Most human cancers …

are caused by viruses

are in blood cells or their precursors

spread through solid tissues rather than by the blood

or lymphatic system

involve mutations of somatic cells

are inherited

12. Multifactorial disease :

are less common that single-gene diseases

involve the interactions of several mRNAs.

involve the interaction of many genes with the environment

are exemplified by sickle-cell anemia.

affect less than 1 percent of humans

13. In fragile-X syndrome,

females are affected more severely than males

a short sequence of DNA is repeated many times to create the

fragile site

both the X and Y chromosomes tend to break when prepared

for microscopy

all people who carry the gene that causes the syndrome are

mentally retarded

the basic pattern of inheritance is autosomal dominant

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

The International Biology Olympiad (IBO)

A science olympiad for high school students.

IBO promotes a career in science of Biology for talented students and provides an opportunity to compare educational methods and exchange experiences. This improves biology education on a national level. Several organisation as schools and educational institutions, like ministries of education, industry, teachers’ associations cooperate and promote this activity.

Some questions for Biology Olympians

1. Names of some proteins are given below.

A. collagen B. hemoglobin C. albumin D. actin E. casein

Which of these is a ____________protein?

1. transport

2. storage

3. fibrous

4. contractile

2. Five structures found in living cells are given here.

A. Ribosomes B. Chloroplasts C. Mitochondria

D. Lysosomes E. Peroxisomes

Which of these

1. contain DNA within ?

2. can be found in bacteria?

3. contain a single membrane?.

4. contain catalase enzyme?

3. The diagram given below indicates the change of the rate of an enzyme

reaction with a change of one variable factor.

1. What is the variable factor that suits the X-axis of the graph ?

2. What happens to the enzyme in the phase B of the graph?

3. Is the change that happens to enzyme in phase B is reversible?

4. Name a starch hydrolyzing enzyme that behaves this way

4. Some geological periods of earth are given below.

(A) Cambrian (B) Permian (C) Devonian

(D) Jurassic (E) Quaternary

Which of these periods

1. can be considered as the age of fishes?

2. marked by the appearance of birds?

3. marked by the extinction of trilobites?

4. marked by the appearance of flowering plants?

5. This question is based on the following.

A. Ulva B. Pteridophyta C. Reptilia D. Dicotyledoneae E. Lepidoptera

Which of the above represents

1. a phylum/division?

2. a class?

3. a genus name?

4. an order?

6. The diagram given below indicates an experiment on respiration of germinating seeds. The two respirometers A and B have equal samples of seeds. Flask A has a tube containing KOH in addition to seeds. Initial levels of liquid columns in the tubes are indicated as 0. After one hour the liquid column in A was h1 and that of B was h2.

1. Calculate the Respiratory Quotient. RQ= h1-h2/ h1

2. If the flask contained germinating Sesame seeds what will be the approximate value of Respiratory Quotient?

3. If the two flasks contained germinating Mung seeds will h2 be 0, -ve or +ve?

4. Why is this experiment done with germinating seeds and not with dry seeds?

7. The diagram given below indicates some experiments done by Went with coleoptiles oat seedlings. A coleoptile grown in darkness was decapitated and the tip was kept on a block of agar for a few minutes. A indicates the agar block placed sideways on another decapitated coleoptile. B indicates the control for this experiment.

1. If the agar block in B was placed in the center of coleoptile (not sideways) what would have been the result?

2. What is the substance that was discovered by these experiments?

3. Why is this experiment carried out in dark?

4. How is the agar block shown in B different from that shown in A

8. The diagram given below shows a part of a transverse section of a stem as seen under microscope.

1. What is more likely to be the plant from which the section has been taken ; Sunflower or a Grass?

2. What is the type of tissue labeled as A?

3. What are the structures labeled as B?

9. Answer the following questions based on human heart.

1. The stimulus for contraction of heart is generated by ______

2. The finer branches of the cardiac fibers that transmit impulses in the heart are known as ________

3. Time taken to complete atrial and ventricular diastole for an adult human at rest is________

4. Volume of blood pumped per minute into the systemic circuit is known as __________

10. This question is based on the vitamins listed below

A – Vitamin A (retinol)

B – Vitamin B3 (niacin)

C – Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

D – Folic acid

E – Vitamin

K. (phylloquinone)

1. Deficiency of which leads to impaired immunity?

2. Which is a component of coenzyme NAD?

3. Deficiency of which leads to night blindness?

4. Deficiency of which leads to anemia?

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AFMC PMT 2012

admin — Sun, 24 May 2009 02:07:46 +0000

ARMED FORCES MEDICAL COLLEGE, SHOLAPUR ROAD, PUNE
Total: 130
MBBS: 130
BDS: None
Eligibility 12TH (60% IN PCB & 50% IN ENG)
Age Min.: 17 and Max.: 21
Question Type : OBJECTIVE
P(50)+C(50)+B(50)+R(25)+E(25)
Duration of the test :2 HRS.

_____________________________________________________________
PMT BIOLOGY : AFMC TEST PAPER 2009 held on 3rd May

First 10 questions answered (courtesy….Simarjot Kaur of Ludhiana)

Answer Keys to AFMC PMT Question Paper 2009

1. In which of the following fruits the edible part is the aril ?

Apple

Pomegranate

Orange

Litchi

2: Coconut milk is widely used in tissue culture because it contains…..
Auxins

Cytokinin

Giberellin

ethylene

3. Which one is not essential for plants ?

. Iodine

Potassium

4. What is the full form of BOD ?

Biochemical Oxygen Demand

Biological Oxygen Demand

Biotic Oxygen Demand

None of the above

5. When is World Aids day celebrated ?
Dec 1

Jan 2

Feb 12

Jan 30

6. Minamata disease is caused by ?

Cadmium toxicity

Mercury toxicity

Lack of iron

S Lead toxicity

7. BCG vaccine is used against which disease?

Typhoid

Tuberculosis

Cholera

Explanation .

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (or BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis. It is prepared from attenuated (weakened) live Mycobacterium bovis a bovine tuberculosis bacillus. The strain is not virulent in humans.

8. Lack of what causes Pellagra ?

Retinol

Folic acid

Niacin

Riboflavin

9. Which of the following is used in genetic engineering as cutters?

Ligase

Gyrase

Restriction endonuclease

RNA polymerase 1.

10. Aedes aegypti is the vector of which disease?

Dengue

Plague

Malaria

Kala azar

Aedes aegypti (=Stegomyia aegypti, =Aedes (Stegomyia) aegypti)….. information contributed by Sooraj
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Better your Biology with Bisbio.in

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Here are few Biology Questions with their answers of CMC PMT Ludhiana held on 24th May 2009 . The questions are from the mind of Shallu Goyal of BBIPL, Chandigarh. We thank her for the contribution.

BIOLOGY PAPER

1. Immunity that comes after a disease has been cured

natural active immunity

natural passive immunity

artificial active immunity

artificial passive immunity

2. Subcellular organelles can be separated by

electrophoresis

centrifugation

paper chromatography

electron microscopy

3. Which sugar is present inside the nucleolus ?

Glucose

Ribose

Erythrose

Sedoheptulose

4. Glycolysis takes place in

cytoplasm

mitochondria matrix

nucleus

inner membrane of mitochondria

5. Desmosomes are

intercellular junctions

pores in plant cell wall

carbohydrates in sieve tubes

located in anther wall

6. Tetradynamous condition is shown by

Brassicaceae

Solanaceae

Asteraceae

Malvaceae

7. Outermost covering of brain is the

piamater

duramater

choroid

arachnoid

8. Corolla having 5 petals and vexillary aestivation i.s called

bilabiate

papilionaceous

ligulate

cruciform

9. Thigmotropism is indicated by

leaves

leaflets

stem

tendrils

10. Vivipary is best shown by

pea

maize

bean

none of the above

Many more questions are to follow………

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AIPMT (CBSE PMT) 2010

admin — Sat, 23 May 2009 13:54:35 +0000

_________________________________________________________________
AIPMT NATIONAL (GOVT.) CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION, NEW DELHI
Total Seats : 1973
MBBS: 1782
BDS: 191
Qualification :12th (50% IN PCB & PASS IN ENG.)
Age : Min. 17 to Max. 25
Examination Type: Preliminary–OBJECTIVE P(50)+C(50)+B(100)
Time given 3.00 HRS.
Mains : NON OBJECTIVE P(10)+C(10) & B(20)
Time given 2 HRS. + 2 HRS.

_________________________________________________________________

CBSE PMT Biology Paper 2009- Answered & Discussed / Dr. S Biswas & Dr. A Biswas by Dr Subroto Biswas

Get your own Virtual Classroom

_________________________________________________________________

COMED KARNATAKA NATIONAL (PRIVATE) COMEDK, BANGALORE

MBBS: Participating Institutes
BDS: None
Total Seats : Variable
Qualification : 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age : Min. 17 to Max. none
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(60) + C(60) + B(60)
Time given 3.00 hrs
——————————————————————————————————————————————————————————–

Biology Paper of COMEDK UGET-held in MAY 2009
The questions came from the mind of Simarjot Kaur of HKS Institute of Sciences, Ludhiana. We thank her for the contribution.

1. For investigating the functions of brain, the most appropriate imaging technique is:
(A) NMR-imaging
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Sonography
(D) PET

2. Mitosis and cytoplasmic division function in:
(A) asexual reproduction of single cell eukaryotes
(B) growth, tissue repair, often asexual reproduction
(C) gamete formation in reproduction
(D) both (A) and (B)

3. Alleles are _____________
(A) different molecular forms of a gene
(B) different phenotypes
(C) self fertilizing, true breeding homozygotes
(D) different molecular forms of different genes

4. Which one of the following contain xylem vessels?
(A) Bryophyta
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Gymnosperm
(D) Angiosperm

5. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
(A) Outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
(B) Enzymes of ETC are embedded in the outer membrane.
(C) Inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings.
(D) Outer membrane resembles a sieve.

6. Synthesis of RNA and proteins take place in :
(A) M – Phase
B) S – Phase
(C) G
1 – Phase
(D) G1 and G2 Phases

7. In eukaryotic cells the histone proteins are synthesized during.
(A) entire prophase
(B) telophase
(C) S – phase
(D) G2 – phase

8. According to Whitaker’s five kingdom classification the unicellular, non-nucleated organisms are placed in:
(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia

9. Which type of relation does a fungus has with alga in lichens?
(A) Epiphytic
(B) Parasitic
(C) Symbiotic
(D) Saprophytic

10. Which of the following plants do not produce seeds?
(A) Ficus and Funaria
(B) Fern and Funaria
(C) Chlamydomonas and Ficus
(D) Punica and Pinus

11. Phylum annelida resembles many mollusca in embryonic features as both have:
(A) Spiral cleavage and mesoderm formation.
(B) Meroblastic cleavage and ectoderm formation.
(C) Special types of mouth parts.
(D) Identical conspicuous segmentation in body muscles and nervous system.

12. Canal system in Porifera is not associated with :
(A) Respiration
(B) Nutrition
(C) Sexual reproduction
(D) None of these.

Many more are to follow……………

____________________________________________________________________

ANSWERS TO COMED KARNATAKA PMT 2009 held in MAY

1. A
2. D
3, A.
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D

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ONLINE TEST BATCH FOR STATE PMT / Physics, Chemistry and Biology Classes from 19th May 2009

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
CMC Ludhiana Entrance Test 2009 / Biology Sample Paper
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Please solve the paper and get the answers at the end

1. Ichthyology is the study of
(a) snakes
(b) lizards
(c) aves
(d) none above

Explanation.
Study of snakes…ophidiology
Study of birds….ornithology
Study of lizards…saurology
Then what is the Study of fishes called ?

2. Bamboo is
(a) a fern
(b) monocarpic
(c) polycarpic
(d) gymnosperm

3. Intrinsic flow of information means
(a) transcription
(b) translation
(c) both above
(d) none above

4. First cloned sheep dolly was made by
(a) Wilmut and Campbell
(b) Stanley and Garjdusek
(c) Miller and Steward
(d) Milstein and Kohler

5. Power of regeneration is poor in
(a) brain cells
(b) chondrocytes
(c) bone cells
(d) liver cells

6. Marijuana is extracted from 6
(a) Cannabis
(b) Papaver
(c) Ergot
(d) Claviceps

7. Vegetative reproduction in bulbils occur in 7
(a) Agave
(b) Gingiber
(c) Vallisneria
(d) Curcuma

8. Oxynctic cells secrete
(a) pepsin
(b) trypsin
(c) HCl
(d) hormones

9.Ephedrine is extracted from
(a) seeds
(b) leaves
(c) roots
(d) stem

10. Which of the following is not a component of xylem?
(a) Vessel
(b) Tracheids
(c) Medullary rays
(d) Vascular rays

11. Meiosis occurs in
(a) megaspore
(b) embryosac
(c) nucellus
(d) megaspore mother cell

12. A person suffering from Klinefelter syndrome will have how many Barr bodies
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) none of these

13. One of these become inactive during old age?
(a) Thymus
(b) Pineal
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pituitary

14. Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacterial cell is called
(a) lomasome
(b) metasome
(c) mesosome
(d) desmosome

15. During allergic reaction which of the following is secreted ?
(a) allergens
(b) histamines
(c) immunoglobins
(d) pyrogens

16. Tunica albuginea is the covering of
(a) liver
(b) spleen
(c) testis
(d) lungs

17. Trichocysts are characteristic of
(a) Paramecium
(b) Hydra
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Amoeba

18. Tusks of elephant are
(a) upper incisors
(b) upper canines
(c) lower canines
(d) lower incisors

19. First National Park is
(a) Periyar
(b) Kazirangha
(c) Corbett National Park
(d) Palamau

20. One of these is single membrane organelle
(a) ribosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) lysosome
(d) ER

ONLINE TEST BATCH FOR STATE PMT / Physics, Chemistry and Biology Classes from 19th May 2009

21. Genetic material of coliphage is
(a) only RNA
(b) only DNA
(c) both RNA and DNA
(d) proteins

22.Krebs cycle is a part of _________ respiration
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) fermentation
(d) fecultative

23. Photosystem II occurs in
(a) outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) stroma
(c) grana
(d) inner membrane of mitochondria

24.Cell wall of fungus is made of
(a) cellulose
(b) chitin
(c) fungal chitin
(d) muramic acid

25. Monosaccharides found in nucleolus is
(a) hexose
(b) pentose
(c) tetrose
(d) erythrose

26.A male child suffering from Down syndrome will have genetic constitution
(a) XX
(b) XXY
(c) XY
(d) XO

27.Cell organelles can be separated by
(a) chromatography
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) differential centrifugation
(d) electrophoresis

28. Cells surrounding guard cells are
(a) Accessory
(b) subsidiary
(c) motor
(d) bulliform

29. Totipotency will occur in
(a) microspore
(b) megaspore
(c) meristem
(d) sclereids

30. Nucleosome is
(a) histone proteins
(b) DNA wrapped around histones
(c) RNA wrapped around histones
(d) DNA wrapped around acidic proteins

31.One of these is associated with cell division
(a) microsome
(b) peroxisome
(c) microtubule
(d) ER

32. How many mother cells will form 1000 microspores?
(a) 1000
(b) 250
(c) 500
(d) 2000

33. VAM is
(a) saprophytic fungi
(b) symbiotic fungi
(c) saprophytic bacteria
(d) symbiotic bacteria

34. Which of the following muscles are immune to fatigue?
(a) striped
(b) unstriped
(c) cardiac
(d) voluntary

35. T-lymphocytes first mature in
(a) Thymus
(b) pancreas
(c) liver
(d) spleen

36. Prawn carry
(a) oxygenated blood
(b) mixed blood
(c) deoxygenated blood
(d) no blood

37. Blood in urine is
(a) glycosuria
(b) haematuria
(c) oligouria
(d) anuria

38. Distance between two DNA strands is
(a) 20Ao
(b) 34 Ao
(c) 3.4 Ao
(d) 2 Ao

39. DNA replication occurs in ________ phase
(a) S
(b) G1
(c) G2
(d) inter

40.Pigment found in brown algae is
(a) haematochrome
(b) fucoxanthin
(c) phycocyanin
(d) phycoerythrin

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Answers Keys
1d
2b
3c
4a
5a
6a
7a
8c
9d
10c
11d
12c
13a
14c
15b
16c
17a
18a
19c
20c
21b
22a
23c
24c
25b
26c
27c
28b
29c
30b
31c
32b
33b
34c
35a
36a
37b
38a
39a
40b
…………………………………………………………………………………..

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CET conducted by Punjab University for admission to MBBS/BPharm courses, Chandigarh

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CET Biology Sample Test Paper
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1. Molecular biology is the study of
(a) structure, function and reproduction of cell
(b) Physio-chemical studies of biomolecules
(c) studying tissues under microscope
(d) metabolic activity of life

2. Evolution can be studied now in the action of one of the following
(a) Sphenodon
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Peppered moth
(d) Paramecium

3. Which of these is not a connecting link?
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Spiny ant eater
(c) Tortoise
(d) Lung fish

4. Stored food of Euglena is
(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) paramylum
(d) starch

5. While solving a problem a scientific method is employed. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) The observations are made directly or indirectly
(b) A possible hypothesis is formulated to explain the phenomenon
(c) Hypothesis is subjected to experiment
(d) No control is kept with an experiment

6. Bhopal gas tragedy was due to
(a) Methane
(b) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Malathion
(d) methylcarbide

7. Ergot which is used to extract LSD is
(a) Ustilago
(b) Puccinia
(c) Neurospora
(d) Claviceps

8. Cytokinin is mainly synthesized in
(a) root
(b) shoot tip
(c) leaf
(d) shoot bud

9. According to Oparin’s concept the regulator gene
(a) inactivates the enzyme
(b) inactivates the substrate
(c) inhibits the movement of mRNA to the cytoplasm
(d) inhibits the transcription of mRNA

10. One of the following is the bacterial disease
(a) malaria
(b) tetanus
(c) polio
(d) Filaria

11. One of the following is incorrect
(a) Most homeostatic mechanisms in an organism work on feedback
(b) A living being in a steady state has a self regulatory mechanism-homeostasis
(c) The cell is given instruction when it has to reproduce by a protein molecule of heredity
(d) For survival of a species it is necessary for the organism to replace those organisms

12. An antibiotic-Penicillin is produced from
(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) algae

13. Which of the following is involved in defence mechanism of the body?
(a) lymphocytes
(b) Neutrophills
(c) Macrophages
(d) all of these

14. Gametic meiosis is performed in
(a) a protist which is haploid
(b) a protist which is diploid
(c) all eukaryotes
(d) none of these

15. If a short day plant is exposed to light for short duration
(a) It will flower normally
(b) It fails to flower
(c) It will flower more faster
(d) It will change to long day plant

16. Two species cannot occupy the same niche.This competition exclusion principle is
(a) Allen’s Law
(b) Gause Law
(c) Allen’s Law
(d) Gloger’s Law

17. Rh negative means
(a) heterozygous (Rr)
(b) homozygous recessive (rr)
(c) homozygous dominant (RR)
(d) none of these

18. Acetabulum is present in _______ joint
(a) hip
(b) knee
(c) elbow
(d) shoulder

19.One of the following is not an attribution to an enzyme
(a) It is used up in reaction
(b) It accelerates the rate of reaction
(c) They are specific in nature
(d) They are proteinaceous in nature

20. Pollination by birds is
(a) Ornithophily
(b) Chiropteriphily
(c) Malacophily
(d) Hydrophily

21. The succession which starts in sand is
(a) lithosere
(b) halosere
(c) hydrosere
(d) psammosere

22.Cervical vertebrae of one of following are seven in number
(a) rabbit
(b) elephant
(c) giraffe
(d) all above

23. In emergency blood pressure is controlled by
(a) adrenal
(b) prolactin
(c) adrenocorticotropic
(d) thyroid

24.The curvature movements of Mimosa (Touch me not) are due to
(a) thermonasty
(b) chemonasty
(c) thigmonasty
(d) hydronasty

25.’Venus fly trap’ is the common name of
(a) Drosera
(b) Dionea
(c) Urticularia
(d) Nepenthes

26. The most accepted theory for stomatal opening and closing is
(a) Transpiration
(b) Guard cell photosynthesis
(c) K+ efflux and influx
(d) Starch glucose interconversion

27. Prothallus of moss is
(a) haplod
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid

28. Moss protonema resembles an algal filament but can be distinguished from later in
(a) lacking chloroplast
(b) oblique septa
(c) cellulosic cell wall
(d) coenocytic

29. Synapse is proximity of
(a) two neurons
(b) two veins
(c) two arteries
(d) venules

30. The stage when nuclei lie adjacent to each other
(a) dikaryophase
(b) karyogamy
(c) synapse
(d) plasmogamy

31. Which of the following is false?
(a) Tapeworm excrete through flame cells
(b) Prawns have excretory organs as nephridia
(c) Nephron starts from Bowman’s capsule containing the glomerulus
(d) Excretion is performed by the nephrons by filtration,absorption and secretion

32. The ephemeral structure which anchors the embryo and pushes it into the nutritional zone of the embryosac
(a) haustorium
(b) suspensor
(c) coleorhiza
(d) radicle

33. One of the following is the sex linked disease
(a) haemophilia
(b) cancer
(c) Diabetes
(d) rheumatoid arthritis

34. A beet root slice is first washed and then placed in cold water and it doesnot lose its anthocyanin. This shows that plasma membrane is
(a) impermeable to anthocyanin
(b) permeable to anthocyanin
(c) differentially permeable to anthocyanin
(d) It is dead

35. Phycoerythrin and phycocyanin are found in
(a) green algae
(b) brown algae
(c) red algae
(d) all above

36. Haemocoel is found in
(a) arthropoda
(b) coelentrata
(c) porifera
(d) annelida

37. Carapace is associated with
(a) snake
(b) turtle
(c) flying lizard
(d) crocodile

38. Tissue level of organization is found in
(a) porifera
(b) coelentrata
(c) annelida
(d) vertebrata

39. Placenta is characteristic feature of
(a) mammals
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) fish

40. Water vascular system is found in
(a) Porifera
(b) Mollusca
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Coelentrata

41. The most threatning factor for the survival of plant biodiversity is
(a) destruction of natural habitat
(b) biosphere reserves
(c) vulnerable ecosystems like mangrooves and wet lands
(d) inaccesibility of habitats

42. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Albinism is genetic and etiolation is physiological
(b) Etiolation and Albinism are synonyms
(c) Etiolation is irreversible
(d) Etiolation is genetic and albinism is physiological

43. Severe competition for food,shelter and space is maximum in
(a) Closely related species occupying the same niche
(b) Closely related species occupying the different niche
(c) Distantly related species occupying the same habitat
(d) Distantly related species occupying the different habitat

44. A biotic ecosystem consists of
(a) consumers, decomposers and producers
(b) only consumers
(c) consumers and producers
(d) producers and primary consumers

45. A new species can be developed by
(a) mutation and isolation
(b) isolation and competition
(c) mutation and competition
(d) variation and competition

46. For preparation of a gene map the recombination frequency is additive only over short distances but not over long distances due to
(a) multiple crossovers
(b) lethal mutation
(c) epistasis
(d) synaptinemal complex

47. An organ which is an accessory excretory organ is
(a) heart
(b) stomach
(c) liver
(d) intestine

48. An element essential for nitrogen metabolism is
(a) magnesium
(b) iron
(c) molybdenum
(d) potassium

49. One of the following is incorrect
(a) The ears of snakes are not external but it has fangs
(b) The mammals have four cahmbered heart with no hair on body
(c) Round worm has three lips but is an intestinal parasite
(d) molluscans are shelled organisms

50. Which of the following has four chambered heart ?
(a) Lizard
(b) Crocodile
(c) Bird
(d) Fish

51. Annual rings are formed basically due to
(a) marked seasonal variations
(b) different development of xylem and phloem
(c) uniform climate conditions
(d) different kinds of phloem

52. Production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation is driven by energy from
(a) coenzyme A
(b) NADH2
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) movement of protons from inner mitochondrial membrane to the cytoplasm

53. Deletion or insertion of base pairs causes frameshift mutation unless the number of base pairs deleted or inserted are
(a) only one
(b) ten
(c) two
(d) three

54. Binomial nomenclature refers to
(a) two names of a species
(b) one specific and one local name of a species
(c) Two words of the name of a species
(d) Two life cyces of organism

55. In taxonomy class comes in between
(a) Kingdom, order
(b) Phylum,order
(c) Kingdom,family
(d) Family,genus

56. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering and
(a) cuts DNA base pairs at specific sites
(b) cuts DNA base pairs at variable sites
(c) joins two DNA segments
(d) cuts RNA base pairs at specific sites

57. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Whale is the largest fish
(b) Insects have three pair of legs
(c) Platyhelminthes have flame cells for excretion
(d) All the mammals have mammary glands but may not have hair

58. Agar, alginic acid and carragheen obtained from Gracilaria are chemically
(a) fats
(b) Phycocolloids
(c) proteins
(d) alkaloids

59. Which of the following is true about viruses?
(a) It is not parasite in a living host
(b) It can be cultured on artificial media
(c) It doesnot have a genetic material of its own
(d) It can be crystallized and kept in a bottle for several years

60. The separation of the chromosomes during metaphase can be best studied by
(a) Phase contrast microscope
(b) TEM
(c) electron microscope
(d) X ray technique

UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Examination

admin — Sat, 23 May 2009 13:45:04 +0000

Syllabus for both Prelims and Mains UPSC Civil Services Examination, 2009

CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS SYLLABUS
Part A – Preliminary Examination – Optional Subjects .. BOTANY

1. Cell Biology : Structure and function of cell wall (extracellular matrix or ECM), cell membrane and cell organelles. Nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear pore complex (NPC), chromosome and nucleosome. Mitosis, meiosis, molecular control involving checkpoints in cell division cycle. Differentiation, cellular senescence.

2. Genetics, Molecular Biology and Biotechnology : Laws of inheritance. Concept of gene and allelomorph. Linkage, crossing over and gene mapping. Structural and numerical changes in chromosomes and gene mutations. Sex determination and differentiation. Structure and synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins. Genetic code. Regulation of gene expression. Genetic engineering and crop improvement. Protoplast, cell, tissue and organ cultures. Somatic hybridization. Biofertilizers and biopesticides. Biotechnology in agri-horticulture, medicine and industry.

3. Tissue Systems : Origin, development, structure and function of primary and secondary tissues.

4. Plant Diversity and Systematics : Structure and function of plant forms from evolutionary aspects (viruses to Angiosperms including fossils). Principles of nomenclature, classification and identification of plants. Modern approaches in plant taxonomy. Recent classification of living organism into three groups (bacteria, archaea and eukarya).

5. Plant Physiology: Water relations. Mineral nutrition. Photosynthesis. Respiration. Nitrogen metabolism. Enzymes and coenzymes. Dynamics of growth, growth movements, growth substances, photomorphogenesis. Secondary metabolites. Isotopes in biological studies. Physiology of flowering.

6. Methods of Reproduction and Seed Biology : Vegetative, asexual and sexual methods of reproduction. Pollination and fertilization. Sexual incompatibility. Development, structure, dormancy and germination of seed.

7. Plant Pathology : Diseases of rice, wheat, sugarcane, potato, mustard, groundnut and cotton crops. Factors affecting infection (host factors, pathogen factors, biotic factors like rhizosphere and phyllosphere organisms). Chemical, biological and genetic methods of disease control (including transgenic plants).

8. Plant and Environment : Biotic and abiotic components. Ecological adaptation. Types of vegetational zones and forests of India. Deforestation, afforestation, social forestry and plant introduction. Soil erosion, wasteland, reclamation. Environmental pollution and its control (including phytoremediation). Bioindicators. Global warming.

9. Biodiversity, Plant Genetic Resources: Methods of conservation of plant genetic resources and its importance. Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). Endangered, threatened and endemic taxa. Role of cell/tissue culture in propagation and enrichment of genetic diversity. Plants as sources of food, fodder, forage, fibres, oils, drugs, wood and timber, paper, rubber, beverages, spices, essential oils and resins, gums, dyes, insecticides, pesticides and ornamentation. Biomass as a source of energy.

10. Origin of Life and Evolution: Basic concepts of origin of earth and origin of life. Theories of organic evolution, molecular basis of evolution.

Examination Syllabus – Subject : ZOOLOGY
1. Cell structure and function :
a. Prokaryote and eukaryote.
b. Structure of animal cell, structure and functions of cell organelles.
c. Cell cycle-mitosis, meiosis.
d. Structure and contents of nucleus including nuclear membrane, structure of chromosome and gene, chemistry of genetic components.
e. Mendel’s laws of inheritance, linkage and genetic recombination; cytoplasmic inheritance.
f. Function of gene: replication, transcription and translation; mutations (spontaneous and artificial); Recombinant DNA: principle and application.
g. sex determination in Drosophila and man; sex linkage in man.
2. Systematics :
a. Classification of non-chordates (up to sub-classes) and chordates (up to orders) giving general features and evolutionary relationship of the following phyla: Protozoa, Porifera, Coelenterata, Platyhelminthes, Nematheliminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Minor Phyla (Bryozoa, Phoronida and Chaetognatha) and Hemichordata.
b. Structure reprodcution and life history of the following types: Amoeba, Monocystis, Plasmodium, Paramaecium, Sycon, Hydra, Obelia, Fasciola, Taenia, Ascaris, Neanthes, Pheretima, Hirudinia, Palaemon, Buthus, Periplaneta, Lamellidens, Pila, Asterias and Balanoglossus.
c. Classification of chordates (up to orders), giving general features and evolutionary relationship of the following: Protochordata; Agnatha; Gnathostomata – Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia.
d. Comparative functional anatomy of the following based on type animals (Scoliodon, Rana, Calotes, Columba and Oryctolagus): integrument and its derivatives, endoskeleton, digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system including heart and aortic arches, urinogenital system; brain and sense organs (eye and ear); endocrine glands and other hormone producing structures, (Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads) their function.
3. Vertebrate Physiology and Biochemistry :
a. Chemical composition of protoplasm; nature and function of enzymes; vitamins, their sources and role; colloids and hydrogen ion concentration; biological oxidation, electron transport and role of ATP, energetic, glycolysis, citric acid cycle; vertebrate hormones: their type, sources and functions; pheromones and their role.
b. Neuron and nerve impulse-conduction and transmission across synapses; neurotransmitters and their role, including acetyl cholinesterase activity.
c. Homeostasis; osmoregulation; active transport and ion pump.
d. Composition of carbohydrates, fats, lipids and proteins; steroids.
4. Embryology :
a. Gametogenesis, fertilization, cleavage; gastrulation in frog and chick
b. Metamorphosis in frog and retrogressive metamorphosis in ascidian; extra-embryonic membranes in chick and mammal; placentation in mammals; Biogenetic law.
5. Evolution :
a. Origin of life; principles, theories and evidences of evolution; species concept.
b. Zoogeographical realms, insular fauna; geological eras.
c. Evolution of man; evolutionary status of man.
6. Ecology, Wildlife and Ethology :
a. Abiotic and biotic factors; concept of ecosystem, food chain and energy flow; adaptation of aquatic, terrestrial and aerial fauna; intra-and inter-specific animal relationships; environmental pollution: Types, sources, causes, control and prevention.
b. Wildlife of India; endangered species of India; sanctuaries and national parks of India.
c. Biological rhythms.
7. Economic Zoology :
a. Beneficial and harmful insects including insect vectors of human diseases.
b. Industrial fish, prawn and molluscs of India.
c. Non-poisonous and poisonous snakes of India.
d. Venomous animals-centipede, wasp, honey bee.
e. Diseases caused by aberrant chromosomes/genes in man; genetic counseling; DNA as a tool for forensic investigation.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

IAS SAMPLE PAPER LIFE SCIENCE – BOTANY SECTION

1. In Pinus roxburghii, the common pine tree, microsporophyll have :
(a) 2 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll
(b) 4 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(c) 2 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(d) 4 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll.

2. Megasporophylls which are arranged spirally and acropetaly on the central axis of the female cone of Pinus bear:
(a) 4 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(b) 2 megasporangia on ventral surface
(c) 2 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(d) 4 megasporangia on ventral surface.

3. In a vast marine ecosystem, certain sea developed colouration. This red colour is due to the presence of large population of -which one of the following organisms :
(a) certain members of Rhodophyta
(b) Physarium
(c) dinoflagellates
(d) diatoms and members of red algae.

4. Like angiospermic parasite such as Cuscuta, there are some parasitic forms of Rhodophyta, which are colourless, heterotrophic and grow on other members of Rhodophyta. Select which one is a parasitic form of red algae :
(a) Gelidium
(b) Harveyella
(c) Choridras
(d) both (a) & (b).

5. If sporangia are developed from a single initial cell, the development of sporangia is designated as
(a) eusporangiate
(b) leptosporangiate
(c) monosporangiate
(d) polysporangiate.

6. The neck of archegonium of Pinus roxburghii is made up of :
(a) 8 cells arranged in 4 tiers of 2 cells each
(b) 8 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 4 cells each
(c) 4 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 2 cells each
(d) none of the above.

7. It is matter of common observation that monocots and dicots have one and two cotyledons respectively but in gymnosperms the numer of cotyledons are:
(a) always 3
(b) 3-18
(c) 2-5
(d) variable 1-2.

8. Oenothera type of female gametophyte is always:
(a) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(b) 16 nucleate and 13 celled
(c) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
(d) 4 nucleate and 4 celled.

9. Which one of the following is the most common types of embryo sac:
(a) allium type
(b) oenothera type
(c) polygonum type
(d) adoxa type

10. If the chromosome number of cells of nucellus of megasporangium of Pinus is 16 what would be the chromosome number of endosperm cells:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 48
(d) 08.

11. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides longitudinally and the Ca and Cb transversely both contribute to the development of embryo, this type of the embryogeny would be :
(a) onagrad
(b) astrad
(c) solanad
(d) both a and b

12. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides transversly the embryogeny would be
(a) solanad and Asterad type
(b) chenopodiad and Onagrad type
(c) caryophyllad and Onagrad type
(d) solanad and Chenopodiad type.

13. Parthenium argentatum which is commonly,known as ‘Guayule’ provides which one of the following commercial products:
(a) para-rubber
(b) a product equivalent to para-rubber
(c) chewing gum
(d) Jo-jo-ba oil.

14. Ectomycorrhiza is commonly found in:
(a) Pinus
(b) Quercus
(c) Rhododendron
(d) all of the above.

15. One of the most important raw material for paper and pulp industry comes from our vast forest resources, select the source for paper and pulp
industry extensively used in our country:
(a) Dendrobium
(b) Diospyros
(c) Dendrocalamus
(d) Cedrus.

16. Under the umbrella of social forestry a system has been launched in which agriculture and forestry are involved. Select the name of the system:
(a) block cutting system
(b) jhum cultivation system
(c) taungya system
(d) none of them.

17. Electrostatic precipitators are extensively employed to control:
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) none of the above.

18. Cyclone collectors are nowadays commonly used to control:
(a) air pollution with special reference to dust particles
(b) radioactive pollution
(c) water pollution in general
(d) water pollution with special reference to Ganga Action Plan,

19. Myrmecophily is a beneficial association between some organisms and some flowering plants such as Cassia. Select the correct organism from the following:
(a) bacteria
(b) mycoplasma
(c) honey bees
(d) ants.

20. Reindeer Moss which is the most important and staple food for Reindeer in Arctic region belongs to which group of plants:
(a) algae
(b) bryophyta
(c) lichens
(d) pteridophyta.

21. Cauliflorous flowers are commonly found in which one of the following plants:
(a) Cassia
(b) Brassica (Cauliflower)
(c) Polyalthia
(d) none of the above.

22. The botanical name of cauliflower is:
(a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(b) Brassica oleracea var. gongoloides
(c) Brassica oleracea
(d) none of these

23. Ligulate leaves are found in:
(a) myrtaceae
(b) compositae
(c) poaceae
(d) cyperaceae.

24. The phenomenon of anisophylly where 2 different sizes of leaves are found is exhibited in which one of the following plants:
(a) Ranunculus aquatalis
(b) Limnophila heterophyllum
(c) Cabomba stellaris
(d) none of them.

25. In opposite phyllotaxy, if the leaves are of different size and arranged alternately, the phenomenon is termed as:
(a) distichous
(b) pentastichous
(c) anisophylly
(d) heterophylly.

26. Ligulate flowers are the diagnostic character of which one of the following family:
(a) graminae
(b) asteraceae
(c) brassicaceae
(d) papilionaceae.

27. If an angiospermic plant produces staminate, pistilate and bisexual flowers on the same inflorescence, the condition would be termed as:
(a) dioecious
(b) trioecious
(c) polygamous
(d) andro-gynoecious.

328. There are certain plant species which flower only once in their lifespan. This condition is named as:
(a) polygamous
(b) polycarpic
(c) monocarpic
(d) pericarpic.

29. In order to check the purity of honey and its source, pollen grains are being studied in a sample of honey. Such a study is called as:
(a) aeropalynology
(b) palynology
(c) melittopalynology
(d) latropalynology.

330. If both the anthers and filaments are fused together to form a compact structure with sigmoid in appearance the condition is termed as:
(a) syngenesious
(b) androecious
(c) syngynandrous
(d) synandrous.

31. If the anthers are fused together forming a tubular structure while the filaments remain free, the condition is found in which one of the following family:
(a) malvaceae
(b) cucurbitaceae
(c) solanaceae
(d) asteraceae.

32. If the anthers are fused to form a tubular structure whereas the filaments remain free, the condition is termed as:
(a) epipetalous – syngenesious
(b) epipetalous – synandrous
(c) polyandrous
(d) none of them.

33. Synandrous condition of stamens, where both anthers and filaments are fused to form a compact structure is found in :
(a) Luffa
(b) Lagenaria
(c) Lilium
(d) both a and b.

34. If a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young but becoming 2-locular with age and the appearance of the fruit so developed is pod like, the fruit would be grouped under:
(a) lomentum
(b) siliqua
(c) silicula
(d) capsule.

35. lf a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young becoming bilocular at maturity and the length of the fruit is less than ifs breadth, the fruit would be called as:
(a) cypsella
(b) silicula
(c) silique
(d) Sorosis

36.If a fruit is developed from(2G), bilocular with one ovule in each locule and pendulously attached and the wall of the ovary possess vittae, the fruitis designated as:
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) cremocarp
(d) capsule.

___________________________________________________________________________________________

IAS SAMPLE PAPER LIFE SCIENCE – ZOOLOGY SECTION

1. Suckling the young by both male and female parents is observed in
(a) Pangolin
(b) Macropus
(c) Loris
(d) Ornithorhynchus

2. The reptilian character of prototherians is
(a) Diaphragm
(b) T-shaped clavicle
(c) Seven cervical vertebrae
(d) only left aortic arch present

3. Endostyle is present in
(a) Ammocoetus larva
(b) Axolotl larva
(c) Asicidian tadpole
(d) Frog’s tadpole

4. In rabbit succus entericus is secreted by
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(b) Brunner gland
(c) Submaxillary gland
(d) Islet of Langerhans

5. The vitamin which regulates the absorption of calcium from intestine in rabbit?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) K
(d) E

6. Spigelion lobe 1in rabbit is a lobe of the
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Liver

7. The dentition in rabbit is heterodont and
(a) Polyphyodont
(b) Diphyodont
(c) Acrodont
(d) Monophyodont

8. Hypoparathyroidism leads to
(a) Myxoedema
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Tetany
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

9. The joint between atlas and odontoid process of axis in rabbit is
(a) Pivot
(b) Ball and Socket
(c) Hinge
(d) Arthroidal

10. lon essential for muscle contraction is
(a) Mg
(b) Hg
(c) Mn
(d) Ca

11. Gestation period in human beings is
(a) 80 days
(b) 180 days
(c) 270 days
(d) 380 days

12. When the blood group of a person is not known which type of blood can be transfused to him in emergency ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) 0
(d) AB

13. In an operon a repressor is produced by

(a) Structural gene
(b) regulator gene
(c) inducer
(d) Nonsense codon

14. Consider the following developmental zones seen in intracartilaginous bone formation in long and short bones:
1. Zone of maturation and hypertrophy
2. Zone of proliferation and multiplication
3. Zone of cartilage calcification
4. Zone of cartilage removal and bone deposition
What is the correct sequence of the above zones from the distal ends?
(a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
(b) 2 – I – 3 – 4
(c) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(d) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

15. Which one of the following sensory receptors is found in epidermis?
(a) Merkel disc
(b) Meissner’s corpuscles
(c) Ruffini ending
(d) Pacinian corpuscles

16. Which one of the following cells of germinal epithelium of testis devides by meiosis?
(a) Type A spermatogonium
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Spermatid
(d) Secondary spermatocyte

17. The body of the vertebra develops from
(a) notochord
(b) primitive streak
(c) one sclerotome
(d) cephalic and caudal halves of adjacent sclerotomes

18. Which of the following does not contribute to the development of laryngeal cartilages?
(a) Tuberculum impar
(b) Mesenchyme derived from neural crest
(c) Cartilages of fourth to sixth pairs of pharyngeal arches
(d) Hypobranchial eminence

19. The diaphragm is formed from the following except
(a) septum transversum
(b) paraxial mesoderm
(c) pleuroperitoneal membranes
(d) dorsal mesentery of oesphagus

20. Support of the muscles against gravity is a function of which one of the following?
(a) Reticular nuclei
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Supplementary motor area
(d) Amygdala

21. The type of synaptic inhibition seen in cerebellum is
(a) pre-synaptic
(b) post-synaptic
(c) feed forward
(d) Renshaw cell

22. The characteristic brown-red colour of faeces is due to the presence of
(a) biliverdin
(b) urobilinogen
(c) stercobilin
(d) bilirubin

23. Consider the following:
1. Electrocardiogram
2. Phonocardiogram
3. Jugular venous pulse tracing
4. Carotid pulse tracing
Which of the above must be recorded simultaneously in order to calculate the duration of total electromechanical systole?
(a) I and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

__________________________________________________________________________________________

AIIMS PMT

admin — Sat, 23 May 2009 13:31:33 +0000

Ask for Online Biology Test Batches for PMT

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Test

NATIONAL EXAM OF ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCE, NEW DELHI
Total Seats : 50
MBBS: 50
BDS: None
Eligibility :12th Standard (60% IN PCBE)
Age Required: Min. 17 to max.: None
Examination Type : Objective P(60)+C(60)+B(60)+GK(20)
Time given :3.3 HRS.

Important Dates
Examination date … First week June

Test Result Declaration ……….. around July

Syllabus For AIIMS

I Diversity in Living World
Diversity of living organisms
Classification of the living organisms (five kingdom classification, major groups and principles of classification within each kingdom).
Systematics and binomial System of nomenclature
Salient features of animal (non chordates up to phylum level and chordates up to class level) and plant (major groups; Angiosperms up to subclass) classification.
Botanical gardens, herbaria, zoological parks and museums.

II Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tissues in animals and plants.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different parts of flowering plants: Root, stem, leaf, inflorescence, flower, fruit and seed.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems of an annelid (earthworm), an insect (cockroach) and an amphibian (frog).

III CELL: STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
Cell: cell wall, cell membrane and cell organelles’ (plastids, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies/dictyosomes, ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, centrioles) and nuclear organization.
Mitosis, meiosis, cell cycle.
Basic chemical constituents of living bodies.
Structure and functions of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Enzymes: types, properties and function.

IV Plant Physiology
Movement of water, food, nutrients and gases, Plants and Water Mineral nutrition, respiration, Photosynthesis, Plant growth and development.

V Human Physiology
Digestion and absorption.
Breathing and respiration.
Body fluids and circulation.
Excretory products and elimination.
Locomotion and movement.
Neural control and coordination,
chemical coordination and regulation.

VI SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
Pollination and fertilization in flowering plants. Development of seeds and fruits.
Human reproduction: reproductive system in male and female, menstrual cycle. Production of gametes, fertilization, implantation, ,embryo development, pregnancy and parturation. Reproductive health – birth control, contraception and sexually transmitted diseases.

VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
Mendelian inheritance. Chromosome theory of inheritance, deviations from Mendelian ratio (gene interaction- Incomplete dominance, co-dominance, complementary genes, multiple alleles). Sex determination in human beings: XX, XY. Linkage and crossing over. Inheritance pattern of haemophilia and blood groups in human beings. DNA: replication, transcription, translation. Gene expression and regulation. Genome and Human Genome Project. DNA fingerprinting. Evolution: Theories and evidences.

VIII BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE
Animal husbandry.
Basic concepts of immunology, vaccines.
Pathogens, Parasites.
Plant breeding, tissue culture, food production.
Microbes in household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment and energy generation.
Cancer and AIDS.
Adolescence and drug/alcohol abuse.

IX BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Recombinant DNA technology.
Applications in Health, Agriculture and Industry
Genetically modified (GM) organisms; biosafety issues.
Insulin and Bt cotton

X ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT
Ecosystems: components, types and energy flow.
Species, population and community.
Ecological adaptations.
Centres of diversity and conservation of biodiversity, National parks and sanctuaries.
Environmental issues.

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Biology Sample Test Paper
———————————————————————————————–

1. The changes in the turgor pressure changes in pulvinus causes opening and closing of the leaves in which of the following?
(a) Desmodium
(b) Mimosa pudica
(c) Tulips
(d) Drosera

2. The plant turns towards light
(a) It is due to differential growth more on the upper side than lower side
(b) It is due to differential growth more on the lower side than upper side

3. CO is more harmful pollutant because
(a) It has more affinity for haemoglobin
(b) it reacts quickly with UV radiations
(c) it has less affinity for Hb
(d) it cannot compete with oxygen

4. If the level of urea increases in blood it is
(a) oligouria
(b) anuria
(c) uremia
(d) glucosouria

5. The most basic amino acid is
(a) arginine
(b) histidine
(c) glycine
(d) glutamine

6. Which of this aminoacid is hydrophillic?
(a) Histidine
(b) Phenylalanine
(c) Glycine
(d) Lysine

7. The bacteria which converts nitrites to nitrates is
(a) Nitrosococcus
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Azotobacter

8. Nissl granules are rich in
(a) proteins and lipids
(b) ribonucleoproteins
(c) fatty acids
(d) nucleic acids

9. Spider, prawn, moth are included in phylum
(a) annelida
(b) arthropoda
(c) mollusca
(d) echinodermata

10. Assertion (A) : Lamina is modified into pitcher in Nepenthes to capture insects for nitrogenous food Reason (R) : They lack chlorophyll and are not green in colour
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

11. Assertion (A) : Rhizopus doesnot form zygospores Reason (R) : It shows hetrothallism
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

12. Assertion (A) Ossicles found around the mouth of sea urchin forms Aristotle lantern Reason (R) : Teeth of Aristotle lantern are analogous to teeth of man as both are masticatory
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

13. Assertion (A) : HnmRNA is larger than mRNA. Reason (R) : HnmRNA is madeup of more exons and introns for translation
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

14. What is Lanugo?
(a) vestigeal hair of new born baby
(b) an African fruit
(c) A man without one leg
(d) excessively tall person

15. Deletion or Addition of genes in DNA is
(a) DNA amplification
(b) Translation
(c) Substitution
(d) Translocation

16. Assertion A. The use of UV rays as water purifier is discouraged Reason R. They donot have residual effect
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

17. Assertion A. MRI is a powerful method to detect tumours Reason R. It doesnot involve radaitions
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

18. Assertion A. During ovulation the oocyte has released one polar body
Reason R. When oocyte is in fallopian tube it is in second metaphase state
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

19. Assertion (A): The linked genes tend to get inherited together Reason (R) The bond between them is fails to break
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

20. Assertion (A): Mesosomes help in respiration in bacteria. Reason (R) They donot have mitochondria
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

21. Oxygen is transported in the blood by
(a) simple difusion
(b) passive diffusion
(c) Carrier mediated faciliated diffusion
(d) faciliatated diffusion

22. Assertion :Vitamin K is given for blood coagulation. Reason : It hepls in synthesis of fibrinogen in liver
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

23. Mammals without exception is
(a) sweat glands
(b) hair
(c) aortic arch
(d) diaphragm

24. Which of the following is important for transcription ?
(a) DNA methylase
(b) CAAT box
(c) promoter
(d) DNA polymerase

25. Number of DNA molecule in bivalent are
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3

26. Wuchereria bancrofti lives in
(a) muscles
(b) capilleries
(c) lymph vessels
(d) intestine

27. What is obtained from Cannabis sativa?
(a) Opium
(b) cocaine
(c) morphine
(d) Hashish

28. Which is responsible for static equilibrium?
(a) semicircular canal and cochlea
(b) semicircular canal and utriculus
(c) lagena and sacculus
(d) otolith and lagena

29. If ATP is not provided to the contracted muscle
(a) actinomyosin will bind to tropomyosin
(b) actinomyosin will not bind to tropomyosin
(c) it will not be able to detach from tropomyosin
(d) calcium ions will not form complex with tropomyosin

30. The cell organelle participating is photorespiration is
(a) nucleolus
(b) dictyosome
(c) peroxisome
(d) glyoxysome

31. Eyes of cats glitter at night due to presence of
(a) luciferin
(b) tapetum lucidum
(c) tapetum fibrosum
(d) porphyropsin

32. When a woman takes dairy products she complains of diarrhoea and stomachache. She does not complain when she consumes food other than dairy intakeas. She is suffering with deficiency of which of these enzymes?
(a) lactase
(b) glucose 6 phosphatase
(c)catalase
(d)pepsin

33. Which of these is not permeable through cell membrane?
(a) CO
(b) glucose
(c) Glucose-6-phosphate
(d) Glutamic acid

34. Which of these is correctly matched?
(a) Butterfly — camouflage
(b) Garden lizard— mimicry
(c) House lizard— autotomy
(d) none of these

35. Somatic hybridization is
(a) mixing nuclei of two different somatic cells
(b) allowing the fusion of far of related species
(c) fusing nucleus of plant cell with animal cell
(d) fusion of gametic nucleus with nucleus of somatic cell

36. Thalidomide drug results in
(a) flipper like limbs
(b) loss of hands and feet
(c) brachydactyly
(d) blood poisoning

37. Who receives electron at the end in electron transport chain?
(a) H2O
(b) H2
(c) CO2
(d) cytochrome a3

38. Which of the following is responsible for seed dormancy?
(a) Auxins
(b) Cytokinins
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Abscissic acid

39. HIV mainly infects
(a) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
(b) helper lymphocytes
(c) Cell mediated T lymphoctes
(d) Killer T lymphocytes

40. Secondary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is
(a) PEP
(b) RUBP
(c) PGAL
(d) Rubisco

41. C4 plants are abundant in
(a) Temperate region with more humid conditions
(b) Temperate region with more dry conditions
(c) Tropical region with more humid conditions
(d) Tropical region with more dry conditions

42. The appearence of primitive streak in the chicken embryo is the first sign of
(a) blastogenesis
(b) gastrulogenesis
(c) neurilation
(d) notogenesis

43. Assertion (A) :All members of bee society are diploid except drones Reason (R) : Drones are produced parthenogenetically
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

44. One of the following is associated with fat digestion
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Sphaerosomes
(d) Glyoxysomes

45. If the fertilizers are added to freshwater
(a) plants will die
(b) eutrophication
(c) number of fish will decrease
(d) number of aquatic animals overall increase

46. Haemophillia is caused by
(a) V factor
(b) VIII factor
(c) III factor
(d) none of these

47. Major contribution to oxygen is by
(a) forest
(b) phytoplankton
(c) grassland
(d) zooplanktons

48. Which of these pairs is vestigeal?
(a) Coccyx and ear pinna muscles
(b) Coccyx and premolar
(c) Facial hair in ladies
(d) Coccyx and intercostal muscles

49. Granules are not present in
(a) monocytes
(b) neutrophills
(c) basophills
(d) eosinophills

50. The correct pair constituent which is made of aggregation of
(a) Cellulose — cell wall
(b) Ribosomes — ER
(c) Thylakoids — grana
(d) Acrosomes — ER

___________________________________________________________________
SRMC Chennai NATIONAL (PRIVATE)
SHRI RAMCHANDRA MEDICAL COLLEGE & RESEARCH INSTITUTE, PORUR, CHENNAI

Total Seats: 210
MBBS: 150
BDS: 60 ,
Min. Qualification: 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age required: Min.: 17 -Max None
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(50)+C(50)+B(70)+GK(10)
____________________________________________________________________

Try answering this Biology Paper : Entrance Test for SRM University held in May 2009

1. Match the following
1. endarch and closed vascular bundle a. pericycle
2. outermost layer of stele b. monocot stem
3. dorsiventral leaf c. monocot root
4. conjunctive tissue are sclerenchymatous d. dicot leaf

a) 1-b 2-a 3-d 4-c
b) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d
c) 1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b
d) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a

2. Which of the following is not a variety of Oryza sativa?
a) CO15
b) TMV2
c) APT19
d) ADT16

3. Choose the incorrect statement/s
1. The most important phagocytes are macrophages and neutrophils
2. The process of production of lympphocytes in bone marrow is called haematopoiesis
3. Thymus develops at about 7th week of gestation
4. The mucosa is endowed with secretory IgA
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only

4. The genome of retroviruses contain
a) only 1 double stranded DNA
b) 2 single strand DNA
c) 2 identical single strand RNAs
d) 2 identical single strand DNAs

5. For every carbon fixation during dark reaction_____ATP and _____ NADPH2 are consumed
a) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2
b) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH2
c) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2
d) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH2

6. Which of the following statements is/ are not true ?
a) In Abelomoschus esculentus the fruit is schizocarp
b) The leaves of Nicotiana tabaccum contain anabasine
c) The tepals are gamophyllous in Riccinus communis
d) Ovary superior trilocular ovules on axile placentation in musaceae

7. Bundle sheath of the leaf is made up of ________
a) sclerenchyma
b) collenchyma
c) parenchyma
d) stellate parenchyma

8. __________ fowl is the oldest and most popular breed of America
a) New hampshire
b) Plymouth rock
c) Wyandotte
d) Rhode island red

9. Pick out the trace elements from the following
a) Co & S
b) Mg & K
c) Cu & Zn
d) Mn & P

10 Gastric HCl secretion is decreased by __________
a) parathormone
b) mineralocorticoids
c) aldosterone
d) calcitonin

Here are the first 10 questions and many more to follow (courtesy….Jasleen Kaur of BBIPL)

_________________________________________________________________________

PMT Biology Papers

admin — Sat, 23 May 2009 05:01:14 +0000

AMU PMT Biology Paper Answered 2009

Dear Students,
We are providing you all the clues and answeres to the AMU Biology Paper 2009 (Exam held 28th May). The complete question papers with hints would be available in forthcoming issue of Competitive Book , Pradeep’s Objective Biology, 2009 June Edition. The questions were in Objective format.

What is so interesting about Allen’s Rule ?
Allen’s rule
A biological rule given by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877. According to him endotherms from colder climates usually have shorter limbs (or appendages) than the equivalent animals from warmer climates.

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How is LUCY famous for ?

Lucy (Australopithecus afarensis) was an adult female fossil of about 25 years. About 40% of her skeleton was found, and her pelvis, upper leg and tibia show her to have been bipedal. Although there is evidence that afarensis was also partly arboreal (tree-dwelling). She was about 107 cm (3’6″) tall and about 28 kg in weight.
Humans have much shorter arms compared to their legs than chimpanzees and Lucy, interestingly, falls roughly in the middle.

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What do you mean by photochemical smog ?

Photochemical smog is a mixture of pollutants. It includes partculates,nitrogen oxides, ozone, aldehydes, peroxyethanoyl nitrate (PAN), unreacted hydrocarbons, etc. The smog often has a brown haze due to the presence of nitrogen dioxide. It causes painful eyes.

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What is Winterbottom’s Sign ?

A early symptom of African trypanosomiasis, a disease caused by the parasites Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense and Trypanosoma brucei gambiense It is more commonly known as African sleeping sickness.
Winterbottom’s sign includes swelling of lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) along the back of the neck, in the posterior cervical lymph nodes. This is because trypanosomes travel in the lymphatic fluid and cause inflammation.

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AMU PMT Biology Sample Paper 2009

1. In Pinus roxburghii, the common pine tree, microsporophyll are having :
(a) 2 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll
(b) 4 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(c) 2 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(d) 4 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll.

2. Megasporophylls which are arranged spirally and acropetaly on the central axis of the female cone of Pinus bear:
(a) 4 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(b) 2 megasporangia on ventral surface
(c) 2 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(d) 4 megasporangia on ventral surface.

5. If sporangia are developed from a single initial cell, the development of sporangia is designated as
(a) eusporangiate
(b) leptosporangiate
(c) monosporangiate
(d) polysporangiate.

7. It is matter of common observation that monocots and dicots have one and two cotyledons respectively but in gymnosperms the numer of cotyledons are:
(a) always 3
(b) 3-18
(c) 2-5
(d) variable 1-2.

8. Oenothera type of female gametophyte is always:
(a) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(b) 16 nucleate and 13 celled
(c) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
(d) 4 nucleate and 4 celled.

9. Which one of the following is the most common types of embryo sac:
(a) allium type
(b) oenothera type
(c) polygonum type
(d) adoxa type

10. If the chromosome number of cells of nucellus of megasporangium of Pinus is 16 what would be the chromosome number of endosperm cells:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 48
(d) 08.

13. Parthenium argentatum which is commonly,known as ‘Guayule’ provides which one of the following commercial products:
(a) para-rubber
(b) a product equivalent to para-rubber
(c) chewing gum
(d) Jo-jo-ba oil.

14. Ectomycorrhiza is commonly found in:
(a) Pinus
(b) Quercus
(c) Rhododendron
(d) all of the above.

15. One of the most important raw material for paper and pulp industry comes from our vast forest resources, select the source for paper and pulp industry extensively used in our country:
(a) Dendrobium
(b) Diospyros
(c) Dendrocalamus
(d) Cedrus.

17. Electrostatic precipitators are extensively employed to control:
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) none of the above.

19. Myrmecophily is a beneficial association between some organisms and some flowering plants such as Cassia. Select the correct organism from the following:
(a) bacteria
(b) mycoplasma
(c) honey bees
(d) ants.

20. Reindeer Moss which is the most important and staple food for Reindeer in Arctic region belongs to which group of plants:
(a) algae
(b) bryophyta
(c) lichens
(d) pteridophyta.

21. Cauliflorous flowers are commonly found in which one of the following plants:
(a) Cassia
(b) Brassica (Cauliflower)
(c) Polyalthia
(d) none of the above.

22. The botanical name of cauliflower is:
(a) Brassica oleraceavar. capitata
(b) Brassica oleracea var. gongoloides
(c) Brassica oleracea.
(d() none of these

23. Ligulate leaves are found in:
(a) myrtaceae
(b) compositae
(c) poaceae
(d) cyperaceae.

25. In opposite phyllotaxy, if the leaves are of different size and arranged alternately, the phenomenon is termed as:
(a) distichous
(b) pentastichous
(c) anisophylly
(d) heterophylly.

26. Ligulate flowers are the diagnostic character of which one of the following family:
(a) graminae
(b) asteraceae
(c) brassicaceae
(d) papilionaceae.

28. There are certain plant species which flower only once in their lifespan. This condition is named as:
(a) polygamous
(b) polycarpic
(c) monocarpic
(d) pericarpic.

30. If both the anthers and filaments are fused together to form a compact structure with sigmoid in appearance the condition is termed as:
(a) syngenesious
(b) androecious
(c) syngynandrous
(d) synandrous.

33. Synandrous condition of stamens, where both anthers and filaments are fused to form a compact structure is found in :
(a) Luffa
(b) Lagenaria
(c) Lilium
(d) both a and b.

36.If a fruit is developed from (2 G), bilocular with one ovule in each locule and pendulously attached and the wall of the ovary possess vittae, the fruit is designated as:
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) cremocarp
(d) capsule.

37. If a dry fruit is developed from bicarpellary, syncarpous inferior ovary with a single basally placed ovule, the fruit would be called as :
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) capsule
(d) silique.

38. The prickly pear plant which is botanically named as Opuntia is an excellent example of:
(a) phyllode
(b) cladode
(c) cladophyll
(d) none of the above.

39. Goldfussia in which two different size of leaves are found is an excellent example of:
(a) heterophylly
(b) anisophylly
(c) distichous
(d) none of the above.

40.The characteristic cell wall material peptidogly can has another coverine of lipopolysaccharides. This specialized condition is found in :
(a) Gram + ve eubactena
(b) Gram- ve eubacteria
(c) all eucaryotes
(d) both (a) and (b).

41. Symbiotic association between tuft of fungal hyphae and the roots of Pinus is known as :
(a) mycoplasma
(b) mycophagy
(c) mycobiont
(d) mycorrhiza.

42. Mucilagiltous polysaccharide commonly called as CARAGHEEN and which is extensively used in various industries is obtained from:
(a) Gelidium
(b) Laminaria
(c) Chondrus
(d) Gracilaria.

43. The algal component of foliose lichen is termed as:
(a) phycosymbiont
(b) phycobiont
(c) mycobiont
(d) ascolichen.

44. Select the most successful group of organism on the surface of our globe:
(a) Gram + ve, heterotrophs
(b) Gram – ve photosynthetic cynobacteria
(c) chemoautotrophic bacteria
(d) photoautotrophic bacteria.

45. Which one of the following is not an essential fatty acid:
(a) stearic
(b) linoleic
(c) linolenic acid
(d) arachidonic acid.

46. The collection of various types of molecules in a cell is called :
(a) primordial soup
(b) cellular broth
(c) cellular pool
(d) molecular broth.

47. When the light intensity changes from I to 100 units, the response of the eye will increase by:
(a) 0.01
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 200.

48. Which is the wrong combination :
(a) Code- Gamow
(b) Chargaff-complementarity rule
(c) Wilkins – X-ray crystallography
(d) Watson- Reverse transcription.

49. In a DNA molecule :
(a) nitrogenous bases are bonded covalently to phosphate groups
(b) pentose sugars are bonded ionically to the nitrogenous bases
(c) pentose sugars are bonded by hydrogen bonds to the nitrogenous bases
(d) nitrogenous bases are bonded to each other by hydrogen bonds.

50. Body temperature of many animals correspond to the environmental temperature. They are known as :
(a) heterothennic
(b) homoeothermic
(c) endothermic
(d) poikilothermic.

51.Deficiency of vasopressin (ADH ) leads to :
(a) diabetes mellitus
(b) diabetes insipidus
(c) grave’s disease
(d) goitre.

52. The junction between two adjacent smooth muscle cells is a.
(a) occluding junction
(b) intermediate junction
(c) desmosorne
d) gap junction.

53. Oestrogen is secreted by :
(a) pituitary gland
(b) ovarian tissue
(c) Graffian follicle
(d) placenta.

54. The structure which is capable of stretching many times its size:
(a) lungs
(b) stomach
(c) uterus
(d) pupil of the eye.

55. Kupffer cells are found in
(a) spleen
(b) liver
(c) lung alveoli
(d) blood.

56. If a person wears a special kind of a spectacle that produced an upright image on the retina then he will:
(a) see everything upside down
(b) see everything upright
(c) initially see everything upside down but regain normal upright vision after a few days
(d) initially see everything upright but after a few days see everything upsided down.

57. Which is more efficient medium for oxygen uptake in respiration:
(a) aquatic
(b) aerial
(c) marine
(d) esturine.

58. The aquaduct of Sylvius connects :
(a) 1st and 2nd ventricles
(b) 2nd and 3rd ventricles
(c) 3rd and 4th ventricles (
d) 4th ventricle and central canal.

59. In man regulation of respiration and heart beat is maintained by:
(a) cerebrum
(b) medulla oblongata
(c) cerebellum
(d) spinal cord.

60. The change in the partial pressure of CO2 in blood is determined by :
(a) carotid sinus
(b) carotid bodies
(c) surface of lungs
(d) carotid sinus and carotid bodies.

61.lf two autosomal sets with single sex chromosome (AA +ZO ) are present in a moth, the moth is:
(a) sterile male
(b) intersex
(c) gynandromorph
(d) fertile female.

62. A child has the blood group ‘O’ The possible genotypes of his parents are:
(a) IA IB x IA IO
(b) lOlO x IAIA
(c) IAlB, 1O 1O
(d) IAIO X IAIO

63. Muscular dystrophy in human beings is a sex-linked lethal disease and males with Xdy dooms to die ( d= gene for dystrophy ). Frequent marriages between X+Xd females and X+Y males in the long run will result in female : male ratio
(a) 2:1
(b) 2:2
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:1

64. HIV codes for the gene (S) :
(a) gag
(b) pol
(c) env
(d) All the above.

65. A number of researches have studied the potential transmission of AIDS by biting insects like mosquitoes. Laboratory studies conclusively showed that HIV:
(a) cannot replicate or survive for long period
(b) can replicate
(c) can survive, but remains dormant
(d) can replicated after long time.

66. A person may die after getting a bee sting in his body due to :
(a) toxicity
(b) coagulation of blood
(c) anaphylactic shock
(d) toxicity and coagulation of blood

67. G6 PD dificiency ( glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase; required for minor glycolysis in human beings) is likewise a sex- linked disease. Like sickle cell anaemia it also afford some protection against malaria. This is an example when a gene can effect more than one trait. This phenomenon is referred as:
(a) pleiotropy
(b) pseudodominance
(c) epistatis
(d) phenocopy.

68. The enzyme used in the beverage industry to flavour soft drinks and in the baking industry to sweeten the biscuits and cakes :
(a) Glycoamylase
(b) Amylase
(c) Proteoses
(d) Glucoamylase.

69. Which of the vitamins can t be deposited inside the body:
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Cholecalciferol
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Retinol.

70. Excessive pulling of ligaments between two bones causes:
(a) fracture of the bones
(b) sprain
(c) breakage of the muscles
(d) all the above.

71. The selection coefficient is
(a) the chance of an organism’s reproductive success
(b) the chance of an organism’s reproductive failure
(c) the genotype which have greatest survival rate
(d) the selection against recessive homozygotes.

72. In evolution the studies can be made at molecular level. For example the protein present in the blood of man and ape are similar. The base sequence in nucleic acids and amino acids sequence in protein in related organism is alike. These are the examples which one specifically referred to in:
(a) convergent evolution
(b) molecular analogy
(c) molecular homology
(d) homoplastic appearance.

73. Which one of the following genotype has one Barr body:
(a) XY
(b) XX
(c) XXX
(d) XYY.

74. The fusion of paternal and maternal sets of chromosomes of haploid gametes is known as:
(a) amphimixis
(b) coition
(c) synkaryon
(d) insemination.

75. Protein C which inactivates factor VIII and there by partly inhibits the clotting mechanism is activated by:
(a) tissue factor pathway inhibitor
(b) thrombin
(c) antithrombin III
(d) heparin.

76. Which of the following vitamins is used in Electron Transport System:
(a) cobalamine
(b) thiamine
(c) riboflavin
(d) ascorbic Acid.

77. Vitamin ‘A’ can be syntheshed inside the body by:
(a) stomach
(b) pancreas
(c) liver
(d) spleen.

78. Which of these bile products not used in the solubilization of fats:
(a) bile salts
(b) cholesterol
(c) lecithin
(d) bile pigments.

79. Besides corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) which other hormones also stimulate the retease of adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH ) :
(a) epinephrine and insulin
(b) insulin and aldosterone
(c) aldosterone and vasopressin
(d) epinephrine and vasopressin.

80. In normal atmosphere the amount of oxygen in air and dissolved oxygen in water respectively are:
(a) 21% and 17%
(b) 95% and 15%
(c) 32% and 7%
(d) 67% and 13%.

81.In an experiment an Amoeba was transferred from a container ‘A’ to container ‘B’. Amoeba developed a contractile vacuole. However the vacuole disappeared again when the amoeba was transferred back to container ‘A’, The container A and B respectively contained :
(a) fresh and marine water
(b) marine and fresh water
(c) both contained fresh water
(d) both contained marine water.

82. The concept of “biological species ” was proposed by:
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
(c) E Mayer
(d) Von Baer.

83. The hormone secreted by corpus luteum is
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) Progesterone
(d) FSH

84. Other than DNA polymerase, which are the enzymes involved in DNA synthesis :
(a) topoisomerase
(b) helicase
(c) RNA Primase
(d) all of the above.

85. Bulk of RNA is synthesized in a cell during:
(a) ‘S’ (synthetic) phase
(b) G1 phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M- phase.

86.”One gene one polypeptide chain” theory was proposed by:
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Khorana and Nirenberg
(c) Watson and Koremberg
(d) Vernon- M-ingram.

87. Both DNA and RNA are present in :
(a) bacteria
(b) higher organisms
(c) bacteria and higher organisms
(d) none of the above.

88. RNA differs from DNA in having :
(a) thymine
(b) deoxyribose sugar
(c) uracil
(d) thiamine.

89. Kleinefelter ‘s syndrome occurs because of:
(a) presence of extra X-chromosome in female
(b) presence of only one X-chromosome in female
(c) presence of extra X-chromosome in male
(d) presence of extra Y-chromosome in male.

90. The nucleolus is the site of formation of:
(a) spindle fibres
(b) chromosomes
(c) ribosomes
(d) peroxysomes.

91. The Recapitulation theory or Biogenetic law was proposed by:
(a) Ernst Haeckel
(b) Von- Baer
(c) Weismann
(d) Menoet.

92. Find out the odd one
(a) Rohu
(b) Catla
(c) Mrigala
(d) Meckeral

93. Which of the following is the connecting link between Apes and Man?
(a) Dryopithecus
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Australopithecus
(d) Homo neanderthelensis

94.Which of the following is a taxon category?
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Division
(c) Polypetalae
(d) Cycas

95. If the tall red heterozygous flower is crossed with the short white homologus flower then it is called
(a) Test Cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Reciprocal cross
(d) Dihybrid cross.

96. Radioactive wastes cause
(a) Respiratory diseases
(b) Fluorosis
(c) Gene mutation
(d) Liver cirrhosis

97. The exchange of genes from one population to other is called
(a) Gene pool
(b) Gene frequency
(c) Gene flow
(d) Gene mutation

98. Gregor Mendel the father of genetics was
(a) An Austrian monk
(b) Italian
(c) The Swedish chemist
(d) An American scientist

99. The genetic material of genes is
(a) Only DNA
(b) RNA only
(c) DNA or RNA
(d) DNA & RNA

100. The natural genetic engineer is
(a) E. coli
(b) Klebsiella
(a) Frankia
(a) Agrobacterium

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

MAHE MANIPAL NATIONAL (PRIVATE)
MANIPAL ACADEMY OF HIGHER EDUCATION (DEEMED UNIVESITY)
Total Seats : 700
MBBS: 500
BDS: 200 ,
Min. Qualification : 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age: Min. 17 to none
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(120)+C(120)+BIO(80)+E(40)
Time given 3.00 hrs

CBSE Board Biology Papers

admin — Sun, 17 May 2009 13:36:01 +0000

BIOLOGY PAPER 1 ANSWERED (CBSE 10+2 BOARD EXAMINATION)

SECTION – A

1. Give two functions of lenticels

i. Gaseous exchange
ii. Transpiration

2. Give full name of ACTH

A. Adreno Cortico Trophic Hormone

Q. 3. Name the chemical released by WBCs which causes rise in temperature of the human body when infected.

Ans. Pyrogens

Q.4. Who signals the closure of stomata in certain plants during severe drought ?

Ans. Production of abssisic acid induces stomatal closure

Q.5. Examination of cells from foetal source is done by technique called as …….

Ans. Amniocentesis

Q.6. Match the following :

Column I ……………………………….. Column II

1. Vegetative reproduction by leaves ….a. Birds pollination
2. Haberlandt…………………………………..b. Gall wasp
3. Mango flowers………………………………c. Sage flower
4. Hypanthodium inflorescence…………..d.birds
5. Bees…………………………………………….e. Bryophyllum
6. Ornithophily …………………………………f. Father of plant tissue culture
7. Kigelia pinnata.…………………………….g. Anemophily
8. Bottlebrush ………………………………….h. Bats
9. Cannabis sativa …………………………….i. Polygamous

Ans.
1.- e, 2.- f, 3.-I, 4.- b, 5.- c, 6.- a, 7- h 8.- d, 9.- g

Q.7. Define green manure with examples

Ans. Green manuring is the cultivation of aquick growing crop which is ploughed so that it gets mixed up with the soil e.g. Lens esculenta (Lentil, masur)

Q.8. Name the enzyme which can break and release the strand of DNA
Ans. Topoisomerase

Q.9. Match the columns :

A. Marriage between neighbours….(i) Trapa, Litchi
B. Triploid Endosperm……………..(ii) Coleoptile
C. Datura, Petunia………………….(iii) Coleorhiza
D. Aril………………………………….(iv) Angiospermic seeds
E. Mesocarp edible………………..(v) Cellular develpoment
F. Plumule sheath………………….(vi) Geitonogamy
G. Radicle sheath………………….(vii) Wheat, Rice, Maize
H. Caryopsis……………………….(viii) Mango

Ans.
A – vi , B – iv, C – v, D – i, E – viii, F – ii, G – iii, H – vii

Q.10. Due to mistake in transcription instead of ATG, UAG is formed in mRNA, what will be the effect of this in polypeptide chain ?

Ans. UAG is the terminal codon therefore, it will stop the translation

SECTION – B

Q. 11. What is the ecological advantage of seed dormancy ?

Ans.
i. It is an adaptation to ensure that seeds germinate only when the favourable environment is available.
ii. It helps in the storage of food crops and their transport from the place of production to a place of more commercial and economic value.
iii. It enables the embryo to tide over the unfavourable period of the year and germinate only when the conditions are favourable for the establishment of seedling.
iv. In nature the period of dormancy always coincides with the period unfavourable for the seedlings of the species.
v. Seeds can be stored artificially to ensure agricultural productivity.

Q. 12. Define three kinds of growth
(i) Auxetic
(ii) Accretionary
(iii) Multiplicative

Ans.
i) Auxetic growth :
In this type of growth volume of the body increases due to growth of body cells without any increase in number of cell.
Eg. nematodes, rotifers, tunicates

(ii) Accretionary :
During post embryonic growth only special type of cells remain undifferentiated and when required they can differentiate and reinforce or repalce the worn out differentiated cells.

(iii) Multiplicative :
The growth of orgainsm occurs due to increase in the number of cells constituting the body Eg. growth of embryo and prenatal growth of higher animals.

Q.13. Distinguish between exons and introns

Ans. Reported by PHILLIPS SHARP

INTRON
1. Location : Nucleotides of mRNA which do not code for any aminoacid
2. Function : None as they are not transcribed

EXON
1.Nucleotides of mRNA which code for amino acids
2.They are transcribed

Q.13 Explain aneuploidy and polyploidy with one example each.

Ans.
ANUEPLOIDY :
When the chromosome number of an individual is not the exact multiple of its haploid chromosome number or hetroploidy.
Eg. Mongolism

POLYPLOIDY :
When the chromosome number of an individual is a multiple of its haploid chromosome number
Eg. 3n, Hybrid variety of wheat

Q.14. Differentiate Allogamy and Autogamy

Ans.ALLOGAMY
1. Adaptation to nature ….Well adapted
2. Nature of flowers………Can be unisexual or hermaphrodite
3. Genetic Variations ….Many
4. Pollinating agents …. Have to depend on them
5. Amount of pollen ….Large is produced and wasted
6. Progeny …. Healthy generation due to hybrid vigour
7. Pollination … May or may not occur

AUTOGAMY
1. Adaptation to nature …. poor adaptation
2. Nature of flowers … always bisexual
3. Genetic Variations … None
4. Pollinating agents ….Need not depend on them
5. Amount of pollen …. Very little produced and wasted
6. Progeny … Poor progeny due to no variations
7. Pollination … Sure to occur

SECTION – C

Q.15. Give the examples of the following natural vegetative propagation

Ans
i. Bulbils : Family Liliaceae (eg. Dracaena, Agave)
ii. Gamme : Liverworts (Bryophytes)
iii. Corms : Amorphophallus , Alocasia
iv. Leaf : Bryophyllum, Bignonia

Q. 16 A man with blue eyes and black hair (homozygous for both) marries a woman with black eyes and blonde hair. Black eyes gene (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b) and black hair (R) is dominant over blonde hair (r) Work out the method of phenotypes of children of this couple.

Ans.
i. Genotype of the man : bbRR

ii. Genotype of the woman : BBrr or Bbrr

I. The phenotype of the children with mother as BBrr and father as bbRR will be
BBrr X bbRR
Gamete type of mother : Br
Gamete type of father : bR
Offspring : Br X bR = BbRr
Therefore, all the offspring will have black eyes and black hair.

II The phenotype of the children with mother as Bbrr and father as bbRR will be
Bbrr X bbRR
Possible gamete types of mother are Br and bR
Possible gamete types of father is bR
Phenotype of children
Br x bR = BbRr (black eyes, black hair) or
bR x bR = bbRR (blue eyes,black hair)

Hence 50% children will have black eyes and black hair and 50% children will have blue eyes and black hair.

Q. 17. Describe three types of RNA with their role in protein synthesis.

Ans.
Messenger RNA (mRNA) :

i. heterogenous class of RNA with respect to its size ans stability
ii. They consists of 103 – 104 ribonucleotides
iii. role in translation
Transfer RNA (tRNA) :

i. Cloverleaf molecule or soluble RNA
ii. They consist of approximatey 75 nucleotides
iii. help in carrying amino acids to site of protein synthesis
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

i. rRNA forms 80% of the total cellular RNA
ii. required for ribosomal assembly to play key role in binding mRNA to ribosomes
iii. They have approximately 120-4700 basews in mammals.

Q.18. Explain homologous, analogous and vestigial organs provide evidence by giving one example each.

Ans.
Homologous organs :
Same origin but different functions
Eg. pentadactyl limbs of vertebrates ; divergent evolution

Analogous :
Different origin but functionally same
Eg. wings of an insect and bat; convergent evolution

Vestigial organ:
Remnant structures which are non-functinal in anorganism but were functional in the ancestor
Eg. Vermiform appendix and plica semilunaris of man.

Q.19. Explain important phases of menstrual cycle.

Ans.
I Follicular or Proliferating phase :
i. lasts for 14 days
ii. involves hormones FSH and LH
iii. This phase involves the growth of ovarian follicles; thickening of endometrium and lining of fallopian tubes

II Luteal or secretory Phase :
i. lasts for about 10 days
ii. involves peak of LH and progasterone
iii. Involves ovulation , formation of corpus leuteum which release progasterone

III Menstrual or bleeding phase :
i. lasts for about 4 days
ii. involves reduction of LH causing regression of corpus leuteum and progesterone thereby increasing FSH from anterior pituitary.
iii. Causes death of endometrium resulting in bleeding to slough endometrium

Q.20. Draw a well labelled diagram of

(i) Angiosperm female gametophyte

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ii) A Nephron

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BIOLOGY PAPER 2 (CBSE 10+2 BOARD EXAMINATION)

SECTION – A

Q. 1. Name the mechanism by which rapid speciation occurs .

Q. 2. Name the organism in which industrial melanism has been observed.

Q.3. Who proposed ‘Germplasm theory” of evolution ?

Q. 4. Who propounded ‘Biogenetic Law’ and gave ‘Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny’?

Q. 5. Expand NAD, and ATP

Q. 6. Name two monocarpic plants which show gregarious flowering.

Q. 7. Name the subdivisions of biology involved in the following :

a. Inheritance of curly hair
b. Development of chick

Q. 8. What is the significance of Miller and Urey’s experiment?

SECTION B

Q. 9. In Bambusa tulda (a flowering plant) flowering occurs once in

(a) 18 years
(b) 38 years
(c) 28 years
(d) 48 years

Q. 10.The breeding and treatment of silk worms for producing raw silk is called

(a) apiculture
(b) silviculture
(c) pisciculture
(d) aquaculture

Q.11.The science which deals with the study of drugs and preparation of medicines is called

(a) psychology
(b) pharmacology
(c) pathology
(d) physiology

Q.12. In TMV the heredity material is

(a) DNA
(b) protein
(c) RNA
(d) lipid

Q.13.The microscopic study of tissues is

(a) anatomy
(b) histogenesis
(c) histology
(d) histolysis

Q.14. A plant which has remained unchanged for the past several million years is

(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Maize
(c) Pinus
(d) Ginkgo

Q.15. Exobiology is the study of

(a) external form of living beings
(b) relation of living beings with the external environment
(c) life in the atmosphere of the earth
(d) life in the outer space.

Q.16. A plant called living fossil is ___________________

SECTION C

Q. 19. What is a fossil? Give one example of fossil which is connecting link between reptiles and birds.

Q. 20. List the gases used in the experiment performed by Urey and Miller on the abiotic origin of organic molecules.

Q. 21. Give two examples from plant kingdom to explain that embryological evidences support theory of evolution.

Q. 22. Distinguish between biotechnology and bioinformatics.

Q. 23. Differentiate between homologous and analogous organs.

Q. 24. What do you mean by genetic drift and hybrid break down?

Q.25. What are allopatric and sympatric species?

Q. 26. What is Hardy Weinberg Law?

Q. 27. What is maent by each?

i. Geological time scale
ii. Mass extinction

Q. 28. What do you mean by natural selection. Give an example from human population which justifies this phenomenon.

SECTION D

Q. 29. i. What is meant by homeostasis?
ii. Mention two ways in which sodium chloride functions in our body.
iii. Define ethobiology.

Q. 30. What are Darwin’s finches? How do they support organic evolution?

Q. 31. Elucidate Baer’s Law and is significance.

Q. 32. What is metabolism? Mention the role of enzymes in metabolism.

Q. 33. What are the traditionally regarded basic characteristics that unify all living organisms?

Q. 34. Elucidate the role of biologists in respect of

i. Economic uses of plants and animals
ii. Usage of genetically modified food
iii. Understanding ecosystems.

Q. 35. What is adaptation ? Name two categories of adaptations found in living organisms with one example of each kind.

Q. 36. How does Industrial melanism bring about the action of natural selection?

SECTION E

Q. 37. Describe Lederberg’s Replica Plating Experiment and bring about its significance in the light of Darwinism.

What is the relation of sickle-cell anaemia, malaria and natural selection?

Q. 38. i. What are vestigeal organs?
How do vestigeal organs indicate human ancestory?
Explain giving examples.
ii. What is significance of Archaeopteryx in study of evolution?

Describe Stanley Miller and Harold Urey’s experiment. What is significance of this experiment?

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BIOLOGY PAPER 3 (CBSE 10+1 BOARD EXAMINATION)

SECTION A

Q.No.1. What is the meaning of binomial nomenclature?

Q.No. 2. In which cells of Nostoc, does nitrogen fixation take place?

Q.No.3. Name a parasitic red alga.

Q.No.4. Who made first attempt on classification of living things?

Q.No. 5. Name a parasitic angiosperm.

Q.No. 6. Name the book written by Charaka.

Q.No. 7. What is chemotaxonomy?.

Q.No.8. What are archaebacteria?

Q.No. 9. What are pyrenoids?

Q.No. 10. What is a taxon?

Q.No. 11 Who is referred as father of Ayurveda?

Q.No. 12 Arrange in ascending order: Speices, Order, Family, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Class.

Q.No. 13. When does meiosis occurs in life cycle of Funaria and Spirogyra ?

Q.No. 14. Who introduced the term species?

Q.No. 15. Give one example of each: acoelomate animal and pseudocoelomate organism

Q. No. 16 Who proposed the binomial system of nomenclature?

Q.No. 17. Name the bacteria that causes syphillis

Q.No. 18. Name 2 bacteria that produce endospores.

SECTION B

Q. 19.Write any four characteristic features of Fungi.

Q. 20. What are the advantages of giving scientific names to the organisms?

Q. 21. What are agarophytes? Give two examples.

Q. 22. What are phycocolloides? Name any two of them.

Q. 23. What are ramenta? Where will you trace them?

Q. 24. Give four classes of pteridophytes.

Q. 25. Name the phylum with which each of the following structures are associated:

i. Gemmules
ii. Nematocysts
iii. parapodia
iv. scutes

Q. 26. Name the larval stages of :

i. starfish
ii. annelida
iii. cnidarians
iv. Balanoglossus

Q. 27. Outline the role of coelom.

Q. 28. What is metagenesis? Name any animal showing it.

SECTION C

Q. 29. What is taxonomic key? How is a key constructed?

Q. 30. Enumerate the characteristic features of gymnosperms.

Q. 31. Enlist the common modes of reproduction in algae.

Q. 32. Give a term for the following:

i. Excretory organ of earthworm
ii. Molluscans with two hinged shells
iii. Muscular part in alimentary canal of birds to store and churn seeds
iv. Excretory organ of cockroach
v. excretory organs of platyhelminthes
vi. Coelom of nematodes

Q. 33. Distinguish between chondrichthyes and osteichthyes. Give one example of each with scientific names.

Q. 34. What are homeotherms? ii. Explain how birds are adapted to aerial mode of life.

Q. 35. Name three basic types of body plans in animals with examples

Q. 36. i. Disntinguish between cryptogams and phaenerogams
ii. Differentiate algae from fungi.

SECTION D

Q. 37. Differentiate bryophyta and pteridophyta and if there are any similarities in them
or

or
Give four characters which all chordates possess at sometime in their life cycle. What are three subphyla into which chordata is classified? Give an example of each.

Q. 38. i. What are triploblastic organisms? Give two examples one with radial symmetry and one with bilateral symmetry.
ii. Give some four differences between platyhelminthes and nematodes. Give an example of each.

or
What are distinguishing characters of vertebrata. Give its classes with examples

or
Draw diagram of ovule of Pinus, describe few significant features and make six labellings.

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ECOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION OF PLANTS

HETEROTROPHIC PLANTS

-They do not manufacture their own food & depends on others
-Usually saprophytes or parasites (total or semi)
Eg. Cuscuta, Cassytha, Orobanche and others

* LIANOID TYPE
Different types of climbers & twiners

* PROSTRATE TYPES
Xerophytic nature and plants possess decumbents & creeping stems

*RENASCENT TYPE
Plants producing leaves & flowers at different seasons of the year

*CACTUS TYPE
Fleshy Stems modified to PHYLLOCLADE ; leaves in form of scales or spines Eg. Opuntia

*SUCCULENT TYPE
Plants with soft & poorly lignified stems

*ROSETTE TYPE
Erect short internode stemmed plant.
Found in open green grasslands or arctic zones

*MUSA TYPE
Pseudostems formed of leaf sheaths.
Large size and herbaceous habit

*ARBOREAL and SHRUBY TYPE (PHANEROPHYTES)
Includes trees & shrubs and possess thick woody tissue

*HERBACEOUS TYPE (THEROPHYTES)
Plants with soft and thin stems of smaller size

*HYDROPHYTES
Plants of Swampy habitat or of marshy habitat containing water more than optimal average for any other plants
They have SPONGINESS in their tissue
– intercellular spaces prominent
– poorly developed root system
– Cuticle or PERIDERM (submerged cork cells) absent
– Stomata generally absent or formless
– feeble mechanical tissue
– conducting tissue poorly developed
– absence or less of secondary growth in stem/roots
– roots absent in floating hydrophytes Eg. Wolffia, Salvinia

Classified into three types
 Submerged
 Floating
 Amphibious

*SUBMERGED HYDROPHYTES
*Grow under water
*Quiet common in our country in pools,tanks,ponds & lakes
*Plant body is thin and delicate
*Usually yellowish green in colour
*Mostly rootless (eg. Urticularia ; Ceratophyllum)
*Poorly developed roots,if developed (Eg. Hydrilla; Spirallis; Vallinsnaria)
*Lleaves are thin and membranous
*Slender stem with mucilagenous cover
*Spongy plant body due to big AERENCHYMA
*Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation
*Root cap absent
*Epidermal cells with chloroplast
*Mesophyll undifferentiated into palisade or spongytissue
*Stomata absent or functionless
*Xylem/Phloem reduced
*Secondary growth absent
*Osmotic pressure of cells is LOW, hence WILT soon when removed from water
*Presence of thin walled parenchyma

*FLOATING HYDROPHYTES

*Free floating
.. Lemna
.. Azolla
.. Salvinia
.. Eichhornia
.. Marsilea

*Fixed floating
…Nymphaea

.. Spirodella
.. Nelumbium

.. Jussiaea

.. Victoria regia

.. Trapa

*AMPHIBIOUS HYDROPHYTES (Emergent anchored hydrophytes)
– grow on shallow water
– extend their roots well above the surface
– roots, part of stem & often portion of leaves are UNDER WATER, but mostly ROOT is AERIAL
– These are WELL ADAPTED in AERIAL & AQUATIC LIFE
– roots well formed
– leaves have thin cuticle
– stomata on both sides of leaves (AMPHISTOMATIC)
– leaves with palisade & spongy parenchyma
– vascular tissue is well developed
– air spaces less developed
– leaves are variously modified
– plants are usually erect
– Eg. Typha, Ranunculus auatilis, Ipomoea aquatica, Sagittaria

** FIVE IMPORTANT ADAPTATIONS OF HYDROPHYTES :

– Reduction or absence of Roots
– Presence of spongy & soft stem
– Astomatic or Amphistomatic leaves
– Presence of air spaces
– reduction of vascular tissue

*XEROPHYTES

-Plants growing on rocks, sandhills, table lands,deserts,alpine peaks
-Plants of relatively dry habitats
-Usually desert loving plants
-Grow on places where water is scarce, abundance of soluble salts in soil, richness of humus acids, low soil temperature, high temperature, and with intense illumination

-Roots are extremely branched,elongated, lot of roothair
-In some herbaceous xerophytes, roots are fleshy as in Dendelion
- In some stem is short and thick
-Mostly they are prostrate (creeping) type
-Certain xerophytes have chlorophyll in their stem Eg. Cactus, Capparis
-Leaves are densely covered with HAIR ( & cuticle) to reduce evaporation of water and light intensity and hence called TRACHOPHYLLOUS
-Leaves are highly reduced in number and in some thick, leathery in texture , hard & stuff; store lot of water Eg. Salvadora, Aloe, Agave, Cactus, Opuntia
-Mostly epidermal cells are cutinized or waxed Eg. Calotropis
-Stomata are very minute and on the lower side of leaves & generally sunken therefore leaves are HYPOSTOMATIC
-Mostly multilayered lignified hypodermis is present
-More of sclrenchyma in their leaves than mesophytes

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Life is not measured by how many breaths we take, but by the momonts that take our breath away

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(CBSE/ NCERT BOARD QUESTIONS SOLVED)

CHAPTER I THE LIVING WORLD

1. Why are living organisms classified?

1. Living organisms are classified in order to:
1. recognize and describe as completely as possible the basic taxonomic units of species
2. devise a method of grouping these units on the basis of their resemblance and relationships.
3. have a common scientific language for having uniform name of organisms all over the world for easy understanding.
2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?
2. The new discoveries by scientists in field of cell biology, genetics and evolution has changed the system of classification from time to time and a need was felt for including, besides gross morphology, other features such as cell structure, nature of cell wall, mode of nutrition, habitat, methods of reproduction and evolutionary relationships.
3. Illustrate the taxonomical hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant and an animal.
3. Hierarchial classification.
The taxonomic hierarchy refers to the framework in which the taxonomic groups are arranged in a definite order from higher to lower categories.
There are seven categories, which are as follows :
1. Kingdom 2. Phylum/ Division 3. Class
4. Order 5. Family 6. Genus
7. Species
For example, the taxonomic hierarchy of mango and dog respectively are as follows:
Kingdom .. Plantae (For Mango) Kingdom .. Animalia (For Dog)
Division .. Angiospermae Phylum .. Chordata
Class .. Dicotyledonae Class .. Mammalia
Order .. Sapindales Order .. Carnivora
Family .. Anacardiaceae Family .. Canidae
Genus .. Mangifera Genus .. Canis
Species .. indica Species .. familiaris

4. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
4. The identification involves determining the name and place of an unknown organism in a system of classification. An organism could be identified with several identification tools or a set of characters called keys. It will help us to determine the similarity of individuals or population with the already known organsims and assign it to a particular taxonomic group .
5. Given below is the scientific name of mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica Mangifera indica
5. Mangifera indica is the correctly written name as initial of specific epithet cannot be capital.
6. Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.
6. •Taxon refers to group of concrete biological objects included in a taxonomical category.
• For example, ‘mammalia’ is a taxon where all animals with mammary glands constitute a group.
• Similarly the word ‘primates’ is a taxon that represents arboreal animals with flattened nails.
• The taxon, ‘Homo’ includes hominids with large brain, speech and long childhood.
• A taxon can be recognized, delimited and described.
7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species ——–> Order ——–> Phylum ——–> Kingdom
(b) Genus ——–> Species ——–> Order ——–> Kingdom
(c) Species ——–> Genus ——–> Order ——–> Phylum

7. ‘c’ is the correct sequence
8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word ‘species’. What is the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one hand and bacteria on the other hand.
8. Species
Species forms the basis of classification.
- A species may be defined as a group of closely resembling organisms, having similar genetic material and are
reproductively isolated.
- The criterion of interbreeding to define a species does not apply to those organisms which reproduce
asexually therefore it is applicable to higher plants and animals but not bacteria
9. Define the following terms:
(i) Phylum (ii) Class (iii) Family (iv) Order (v) Genus
9. (i) Phylum
- A phylum contains/includes all organisms belonging to the different classes that have a few common
characters
(ii) Class
- A class is a group of similar/related orders, that have a few common characters.
(iii) Family
- A family is a group of related genera, that are more similar to one another than with the genera of other families.
(iv) Order
- An order is an assemblage of families, that resemble one another in a few characters.
(v) Genus
- Genus is a group of closely related species. A species cannot be named unless it is assigned to a genus.
10. How Is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
10. • A scheme for identification of plants and animals is called a key,
• Taxonomic keys are based on contrasting characters.
• There are two types of keys, indented and bracketed :

(i) The indented key, which provides sequence of choices between two or more statements of characters of species and the user has to make the correct choice for identification.
(ii) The bracketed key, where pairs of contrasting characters/statements are used ,identification and the number on the right of the statement chosen, indicates the choice of paired contrasting statements.

• To construct keys, we have to first identify the distinguishing features of each members of the group.
• Next, we have to frame questions about them in such a way that only one of the two answers is possible (some
features like present or absent, yes or no)
11. What are the advantages of a botanical garden?

11. (a) Botanical garden provides the visitor to compare plants in their natural living conditions.
(b) They help to get material for botanical research.
(c) They provide on the spot education about the plants.
(d) Botanical garden provides shelter to endangered species.
(e) These gardens also provide acts as a huge library of plants.

12. What criterion would you use to classify different people that you often meet?

12. The criterion used to classify people is same universally.
They are different only on the basis of races as, Negroid, Caucasoid, Australoid, Polynesian, Red Indians, Bushmen
and Mongoloids depending upon our morphological features and skin colour.
The members of all races or subspecies or varieties can freely interbreed.
Human being could be classified in full formal classification as described below:
Kingdom : Animalia
Phylum : Chordata
Subphylum : Vertebrata
Superclass : Tetrapoda
Class : Mammalia
Subclass : Theria
Infraclass : Eutheria
Cohort : Unguiculata
Order : Primata
Suborder : Anthropoidea
Superfamily : Hominidae
Family : Hominoidea
Subfamily : Homininae
Genus : Homo
Subgenus : Homo (Homo)
Species : Homo sapiens
Subspecies : Homo sapiens sapiens

13. What are taxonomical aids?
13. Taxonomical Aids.
All those aids (whether actual specimens or preserved specimens), which help in identification of a species or verification of a species, are called taxonomical aids.
• Some of the taxonomic aids are :
1. Herbaria
2. Botanical gardens
3. Museums and
4. Zoological

Alumni of Biobioin

admin — Sat, 16 May 2009 07:01:40 +0000

The Story of our journey…

The seeds of the institution (BBIPL) was sown in 1983 and planted there after as a Private Limited Company in 1997 by Dr. Subroto , Ph.D with his wife, Dr. Aman , Ph.D after both resigned their respective post of lecturer from colleges.
The academy enlightens,inspires and educates students of Life Sciences for Medical, Paramedical, Biotechnological and other competitive studies.A Journey
The institute located in Sector 36D in Chandigarh, India is dedicated in stimulating the intellect of students and raising each of them to a level of competence. The institute of this kind wishes all those who come here-a bright successful future in any field they choose.

Dr. Subroto Biswas and Dr. Aman Biswas are well known authors who have written several books on Biology and presently are the directors of “Biswas Bio Institute (P) Ltd” - A centre of biological studies.
Apart from writing several books they have guided thousands of students in medicine and other paramedical sciences. They have carried out wide research and have published scientific papers in several journals and magazines. Being doctorates from Punjab University, they are well versed with the needs of the students and are continuing their best to serve the nation and mankind.

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OUR BISBIO.IN FAMILY

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Dr Navneet Singh Tivatia
Quote____
“Dear Sir,
You are the bestest Teacher in this world. Wherever I may go in my life, I will always remember that I had an excellent guide in the form of a teacher, You.
I may not say it always. But, I mean it whenever I say it.
Thank You Teacher for all the things you have done for us.”
With best regards,
Navneet Singh Tewatia

Assistant Director – Biotechnology
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
New Delhi

1996-97 Batch, BBIPL
Cell-
Email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Harijot Singh, MBBS, MD
Patiala Medical College
Batch 1995-96 BBIPL
Cell- 09837850302
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Manmeet S Aneja,
Dental Surgeon, BDS,
1988-89 Batch, BBIPL
Cell-09814032845
Email-anejadent@gmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Nishant Puri
Quote__
Hello Sir, how r u and Ma’am. Just finished the 2 busiest mnths of residency back to back. It was like > 80 hrs/wk with 30-34 hr shift every 4th day. Today was the 1st weekend off in 3 months. Really enjoying it. I hope aap naraaz nahin ho because of my delays in responding.
And yes, Belated Happy Birthday….. Feb.8th 2009

Doing PG in medicine, California, USA
Address
24846 Tulip Ave, Loma Linda, CA – 92354
call-909-455-2295
email-drnishantpuri@gmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Meenu Dogra, , MBBS, MD
Faridkot Medical College
Topper in 10+2
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr.Ankush Mehta

MBBS Bugaria

Presently Serving with Fortis Hospital. Mohali , India

cell…09814614141

E-mail : ankush.mehta@fortishealthcare.com

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Dr Mohit Singla
BDS, Dental Surgeon from BRS
Cell-09872791533
email-
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Dr Vikas Kaushal, Topper DAV College, Chandigarh
MBBS from Dayanand Medical College, MD
Batch 1990-1991 BBIPL
Kaushal Nursing Home, Mandi Gobindgarh
cell -09815504476

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Dr Deepak Manmohan Goyal, MBBBS
From MAngalore Medical College, India
Batch 1994-1995 BBIPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Dr Gagangeet Sandhu
Doing Nephrology Fellowship (USA)
Had a great time with you in Chandigarh back in 1995-1996 Batch, BBIPL
email-docgag@yahoo.com

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Ritwick Das
2005-2005 Batch, BBIPL
Doing MBBS from Chandigarh Medical College, India
cell-09815658642
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Sukhpreet Singh Sukheja, Head of Pharmaceutical Company, Russia
Bpharm, M Pharm
email-sukhpreetsukhija@gmail.com

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Neeraj Kaur
MD Radiology, Post Graduate Institute of Medical Research, Chandigarh
Batch 1997-98 BBPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Manish Kapoor, B Pharm, M Pharm for Panjab University, Chandigarh, India
Batch 1989-90 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Ashima Gupta, MBBBS, MD
from Chandigarh Medical College, India
Batch 1999-2000 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Archana , MBBBS, MD
From Christian Medical College,Ludhiana, India
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Meenakshi, MBBBS, MD
From Dyanand Medical College,Ludhiana, India
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Beenu George, MBBBS
From Trivandrum Medical College, India
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Brijesh Sharda, MBBBS, MD
From Faridkot Medical College, India
Batch 1997-1998 BBIPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Amit, MBBBS, MD
From VMMC, Karaikal India
Batch 1997-1998 BBIPL
email-amit_vmmc@yahoo.co.in

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Manisha Das, M.Sc in Biotechnology, Gold Medalist
From Punjab University, India
Batch 2004-2005 BBIPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Diksha Das, LLB, LLM,
From Department of Laws,Punjab University, India
Batch 2002-2003 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Ekta Bansal, MBBS, MD
Goverment Medical College, Chandigarh
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL

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Dr Surinder Jaiswara, BAMS, MS
Ayurvedic Medical College, Chandigarh
Presently Serving in Aurstralia
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Sumeet , BAMS
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Girish Doda , MBBS
Batch 1998-1999 BBIPL
email-
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Dr Manjeeri Banerjee, MBBS, MD, Topper CBSE PMT 1990
Batch 1989-1990 BBIPL
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Tripat Kaur
Post Graduate in Forensic Sciences.
Presently Serving at a Teacher in School at Atlanta, USA
email-tripatbatth@rediffmail.com

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Dr Anukaran Kaur,
BAtch 1990-1991
Finished MBBS in 1995, internship in 1996,
Moved to San Francisco, California in 1997, Passed all the USMLEs, CSA, Joined UCLA Anesthesiology, Left the field in 2005, joined the fashion world
Cell-
email-anu@khangura.net
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Dr Gurmeen Kaur,
SGT Dental College Gurgaon
BAtch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Harmeen Guraya,
BAtch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
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Dr Harsimran Kaur,
MBBS
BAtch 1993-1994
Cell-
email-
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Dr Jaswinder Singh
MBBS, MD
Stanley Medical College Chennai, India
Batch 1998-1999
Cell-
email-
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Dr Jaspreet Kaur,
MBBS
Lady Hardings
Batch 1990-1991
Cell-
email-
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Dr Jaideep,
MBBS
Batch 1993-1994
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Jaskaran Singh Gill
MBBS, MD
VMMC, Koraikal
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-jassigill001@yahoo.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Komal Aroral
MBBS, MD
GMC Nagpur
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
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Dr Kumud Sapru
BHMS
Chandigarh
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
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Dr Abhishek Sharma
Doing MBBS
Chandigarh
Batch 2007-2008
Cell-
email-
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Dr Sameer Malhotra
MBBS, MD from AIIMS
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
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Dr Manish Trehan
MBBS, MD from GMC Amritsar
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
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Dr Mansi Jain
MBBS, MD
Batch 1998-1999
Cell-
email-masoom_mansi@rediffmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Naveen Gupta
MBBS, MD
SP Medical College, Bikaner
Batch 1995-1996
Cell-
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Dr Nidhi Kumaria
MBBS, MD from DMC Ludhiana
Batch 1995-1996
Cell-
email-
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Dr Neha Goyal
MBBS, MD , Nanda Giri, mangalore
Batch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Narinder Singh
MBBS, MD ,
Batch 1993-1994
Cell- 9814819114
email-
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Dr Nishant Sachdev
MBBS, MD ,
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Prashant Sharma
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-prashant_songw@yahoo.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Parveen K Monga
Maulana Azad medical College, New delhi, India

Batch 1992-1993
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Preerna Sethi
MBBS, Nandagiri Medical College Mangalore
Batch 1995-1996
Cell-
email-
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Dr Parul Mani Goyal
MBBS,
Batch 1995-1996
Cell-
email-
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Dr Pooja Saxena

Batch 1995-1996
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Ritu Gera
MBBS, MD,
Batch 1995-1996
Cell- 09872729441
email-
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Dr Ritu Thakur
MBBS, MD, Coimbatore medical college
Batch 1992-1993
Cell-
email-
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Dr Rohit Garg
MBBS, MD, BJ Medical College, Pune
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
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Dr Roma Mirchandani
BDS, AME Dental College, Raichur
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
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Dr Shikha Gupta
GMCH, Sector 32 Chandigarh
Batch 1999-2000
Cell-
email-
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Dr Simarmeet Singh
GGS Medical College Faridkot
Batch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Sonu Garh
Govt. Medical College Chandigarh
Batch 1999-2000
Cell-
email-
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Dr Simarmeet Singh
GGS Medical College Faridkot
Batch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Sarita Sethi
Md Gyne.,MO ESI Dispensary, Nalagarh
Batch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Sweta Goyal
Nandagiri Medical College, Mangalore
Batch 1994-1995
Cell-
email-
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Dr Saloni Bhai,MBBS
Chandigarh Medical College
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
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Dr Shubh Mahendru,MBBS
BJ Medical College, Pune
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
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Dr Satinder Singh,MBBS
Chandigarh Medical College, India
Batch 1996-1997
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Urvinder Kaur,MBBS
BJ Medical College, Pune
Batch 1992-1993
Cell-
email-urvee@hotmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Wangchuk Sering,MBBS
CMC Vellore, india
Batch 1992-1993
Cell-
email-wangchuktsering@hotmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dr Lalit Vermani,MBBS
BVP Medical College, Pune
Batch 1998-1999
Cell-
email-
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Dr Vidhu Dhawan,MBBS
Chandigarh Medical College, India
Batch 1998-1999
Cell-
email-
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Dr Arvind Sethi,MBBS,
Shimla Medical College, India
Presently Medical Officer & Registrar Shimla Medical college
Batch 1997-1998
Cell-
email-
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Dr Divya,BDS
Poanta Sahib medical College
Batch 2002-2003
Cell-
email-
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Isha Sareen

Batch 2004-2005
Cell-
email-ishasareen.ind@gmail.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Japneet Kaur
B Pharm, PU Chandigarh
Batch 2007-2008
Cell- 09888690178

email-sufi89_malhotra@yahoo.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Jasmin Rana
Bsc Nursing Chandigarh
Batch 2003-2004
Cell- 09876542288
email-jas_rana55@yahoo.com
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Anudeep Kaur
Chandigarh
Batch 2002-2003
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Meenu Sharda
Post Graduate Pu Chandigarh
Batch 2001-2002
Cell- 09876072014
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Renu Sharda
MBBS, Chennai
Batch 2007-2008
Cell- 09894333670
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Tamanna
MBBS,
Batch 2007-2008
Cell- 09342506569
email-
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Dr Shubdeep
MBBS,
Batch
Cell-
email-
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Shweta Singla
M.Sc Biotechnology, Chandigarh
Batch 2001-2002
Cell- 09872974941
email-
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Gurpreet Kaur
Graduated in Nursing and presently working in Florida, USA
email-gurpreetkaur23@hotmail.com

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PRAJWALIT BHANU
First Year M.B.B.S :2009-2010
B.V.D.U. MEDICAL COLLEGE AND HOSPITAL
CELL: 09545129002

E-mail : chikuthink@gmail.com

Nothing is so precious as Time. Let us work as hard as a bee

The spread of H1N1 Virus/Swine flu is similar to influenza virus. To prevent the spread of the disease this is what you may do….

1. Avoid close contact
2. Stay at home if you are not well as germs might spred to others
3. Cover your mouth and nose with a tissue
4. Wash your hands often
5. Avoid touching eyes, nose and mouth
6 Drink plenty of fluids, have good sleep and consume nutritious food

H1N1 Virus/Swine flu

Influenza viruses are the fastest mutating ones. Pigs, humans and other animals harbour them. This allows exchange of genes and thus create a pandemic strain. In humans, the symptoms of present H1N1 strain are similar to those of influenza.
The drugs available such as Tamiflu are just for symptomatic relief but are not for cure.Vaccination for this disease is yet not available.

Haemoglobin

It is one of the largest molecule of our body. This oxygen carring quatenary protein of blood consist of two alpha-globin polypeptide chain and two beta- globin polypeptide chains and four haeme group with iron atoms where oxygen molecules may bind . Males usually have more haemoglobin than females . Incidently carbon monoxide has more affinity for haemoglobin about 210 times then of oxygen.

Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome

This disease causes premature aging – so fast that a young child can look like a very old man. It is caused by a genetic mutation. However, it does not pass to next generation. Most children with projeria do not live beyond the age of thirteen. There is no known cure for it.

Anageria
A medical term for the opposite of Progeria where a person of 50 years look like in his 20s Seen like going slow in ageing

Is that a bee ?

Many different insects mimic wasps or bees which keep away predators with their unpleasant stings. This hoverfly exhibits Batesian mimicry as it imitates a poisonous species (wasp) with black and yellow patterns on its thorax and abdomen. Thus this natural phenomenon of mimicry help many to escape and exist in nature.

Harlequin ichthyosis

Harlequin ichthyosis is a severe genetic autosomal recessive disorder associated with mutation in q arm of chromosome 2. It mainly affects the skin. Infants are born with very hard, thick skin covering most of their bodies. The skin forms large, diamond-shaped plates that are separated by deep cracks (fissures). These affect the shape of the eyelids, nose, mouth, and ears, and limit movement leading to breathing difficulties and respiratory failure.
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