What Is the Largest Cell in Male Human Body?

The brain and spinal cord are made up of many cells, including neurons and glial cells. Neurons are cells that send and receive electro-chemical signals to and from the brain and nervous system. There are about 100 billion neurons in the brain. There are many more glial cells; they provide support functions for the neurons, and are far more numerous than neurons.

There are many type of neurons. They vary in size from 4 microns (.004 mm) to 100 microns (.1 mm) in diameter. Their length varies from a fraction of an inch to several feet (purkinjee cell).

Also refer: Human Body -3 (Nervous system)

http://www.wiziq.com/online-class/191876-explore-the-human-body-3

Do pupil of human eye have different shapes ?

The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris. The size of the pupil determines the amount of light that enters the eye.  The pupil size is controlled by the dilator and sphincter muscles of the iris. The iris has two muscles: The dilator muscle makes the iris smaller and therefore the pupil larger, allowing more light into the eye; the sphincter muscle makes the iris larger and the pupil smaller, allowing less light into the eye.

 Pupil size can change from 2 millimeters to 8 millimeters. This means that by changing the size of the pupil, the eye can change the amount of light that enters it by 30 times.

What are the genes on an operon and what does each do ?

OPERON MODEL (Operon Hypothesis)

‘Lac’ operon (a Inducible operon=Genetic induction)

Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod (1961) proposed a model in 1961 of regulating system of gene action in the colon bacillus, Escherichia coli (or E. coli) and named it operon model (or operon hypothesis). They got Nobel prize in 1965 for describing. This hypothesis states that each metabolic reaction is controlled by a set of genes. All the genes controlling metabolic reaction constitute an operon. They studied the catabolism of lactose in E.coli which involves a set of genes. All these genes involved in the catabolism of lactose are called lac operon .

The operon model is formed of two types of genes namely : a. Structural genes (Co-ordinating genes) and b. Control genes.

a. Structural genes : They have the codes for the synthesis of enzymes (proteins) necessary for the metabolic reactions. These are cistrons—Z, Y and X responsible for synthesizing m—RNA and subsequently enzymes and proteins. These genes are found close to each other and are also called cluster genes.

 b. Control genes : They control the activity of structural genes. The control genes are three types, namely regulator gene, promotor gene and operator gene.

 (a) Promoter gene (P). This is the site where the synthesis of m—RNA is initiated. The RNA polymerase for the synthesis of m—RNA is bound to this gene. This is located adjacent to Z structural gene.

 (b) Operator gene (O). This gene controls the initiation process at the promoter gene. It is located close to P.

 (c) Regulator gene (R).  This gene inhibits or suppresses the functioning of structural genes. It products a protein called repressor, a protein with aminoacids 360 which on combining with the operator site, inhibits the production of m—RNA, and switches off the operon system. The regulator gene is lodged near the operator gene but not immediately adjacent to the latter. 

What is the total weight of a human brain ? 

Check in the lecture of Dr. Aman Biswas to  find out:

 http://www.wiziq.com/online-class/191876-explore-the-human-body-3

How cleft lip is related to heredity ?

How genes play an important role in cleft lip ?

Human syndromes are identified by specific phenotypic characters Cleft palate is one of the symptoms for Patau’s syndrome. Please check the lecture, “When genes go wrong”, with Dr Subroto Biswas http://www.wiziq.com/online-class/166834-when-genes-go-wrong

How and why do an egg become rotten ?

The stench associated with rotten eggs is caused by the sulfur compound hydrogen sulfide. The stinky smell emanating from feed lots and barn-yards is one created by the sulfur compound methyl mercaptan. The odour you associate with the ocean is in part due to the presence of dimethyl sulfide. Reasons for egg rotten can be many:

During storage, enzymes generate H₂S, NH₃and volatile fatty acids. 
Once the egg is frozen at – 0.5 C and it becomes unsuitable for further storage. We need to avoid the big differences in temperature during storage, because the egg  “sweats,” promoting the proliferation of bacteria. 
Sometimes the egg is spoiled during storage. The green rotting (in basic medium) is caused by Pseudomonas species that are penetrated into the egg from faeces. They cause also red rotting (in acidic medium). The yolk becomes black and hard (black rotting), the albumen is evil-smelling upon the effect of Proteus spp. (e.g. vulgaris). Yeasts can also penetrate into the egg during storage. In the fertilized egg, the germ may start developing at low storage temperature of 37-38 ^oC. Under this condition after a certain time the embryo dies and the blood-ring egg develop that is not good for human consumption. 

ANSWERED SAMPLE BIOLOGY PAPER

(Punjab Medical Entrance, 2009)

Dr Subroto Biswas  &  Dr Aman Biswas

Q. 1 Pace maker of heart is
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) Bundle of His
(d) Purkinjee fibres

Q. 2. Pituitary gland is present in
(a) Sella tursica
(b) Media sternum
(c) both above
(d) none above

Q.3 One of the skull bones is moveable
(a) Vomer

(b) mandible

(c) maxillary
(d) all above

Q. 4. cDNA is formed from RNA by
(a) reverse transcriptase
(b) gyrases
(c) helicase
(d) ligase

Q. 5. Study of population is
(a) demography
(b) seismonasty
(c) population graphics
(d) desmography

Q. 6. One of the following is biofertilizer
(a) rice
(b) maize
(c) Sesbania
(d) oat

Q. 7. Father of Genetics is
(a) Mendel
(b) Morgan
(c) Muller
(d) Hugo de Vries

Q. 8. Suberin is present in
(a) parenchyma
(b) Casparian bands
(c) Bark
(d) both b and c

Q. 9. One of the following is used to join segments of DNA during genetic engineering
(a) lipase
(b) ligase
(c) gyrase
(d) helicase

Q. 10. When funiculus, micropyle and chalaza are in straight line the ovule is
(a) orthotropous
(b) campylotropous
(c) anatropous
(d) hemianatropous

Q. 11. Which is enucleated?
(a) Sieve tube
(b) Companion cell
(c) Tracheids
(d) All of these

Q. 12. Sigmoid curve is formed in
(a) Population curve
(b) Rate of respiration
(c) rate of photosynthesis
(d) rate of transpiration

Q. 13. Which of these is correct order of hierarchy?
(a) Kingdom, Phylum, Division,Genus and Species
(b) Phylum, Division, Genus, Class and
(c) Kingdom,Genus,Class,Phylum and Division
(d) Phylum,Kingdom,Genus,Species and Class

Q.14. Conduction of nerve impulse is connected with
(a) Ca and Mg
(b) Ca and Na
(c) Na and K
(d) K and Mg

Q. 15. Route of reflex arc is
(a) receptors, effectors, grey mater and motor fibres
(b) receptors, sensory fibres, grey mater, motor fibres and effectors
(c) sensory fibres, grey mater, motor fibres, receptors and effectors
(d) effectors, grey mater,motor fibres, sensory fibres and receptors

Q. 16. Creatinism is
(a) hypothyroidism
(b) hyperthyroidism
(c) hypoparathyroidism
(d) hyperparathyroidism

Q. 17. Coconut milk contains
(a) gibberellins
(b) auxins
(c) cytokinins
(d) ABA

Q. 18. Auxins promote
(a) apical dominance
(b) abscission
(c) none of these
(d) both above

Q. 19. Heparin is
(a) antocoagulant
(b) blood diluter
(c) antiallergic
(d) anteseptic

Q 20. Ozone hole is present
(a) above Antartica
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) USSR

Q 21 Which of the chemicals in blood is an anticoagulant ?
(a) Sodium Citrate
(b) Citric acid
(c) Chlorine
(d) none above

Q22. Which of these is most ionizing?
(a) alpha rays
(b) beta rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) X rays

Q. 23. Genetic scissors are
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) helicase
(d) none above

Q24. Old people suffer from joint pains due to
(a) drying of synovial fluids
(b) more osteocytes
(c) over production of synovial joint
(d) all of these

Q25. Coccyx vertebrae of birds are modified to
(a) tail
(b) uropygeal
(c) urostyle
(d) Pygostyle

Q26. One of these is used for study of photosynthesis
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Chlorella
(d) Diatoms

Q 27 The length of DNA segment is 340Ao. How many base pairs are present in it?
(a) 100
(b) 34
(c) 10
(d) 340

Q28 Which one of them is a green manure?
(a) Barseem
(b) Oat
(c) Yam
(d) None of these

Q29 In evolution, closest to man is
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Dryopithecus
(d) Propliopithecus

Q30 Darwin’s finches were found in
(a) Galapagos Islands
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Siberia

Q30 The discovery of which plant hormone associated with Bakanae disease of rice
(a) ABA
(b) GA
(c) cytokinin
(d) auxins

Q 31 Sweetest sugar is
(a) ribose
(b) fructose
(c) mannose
(d) ribulose

Q32 Cancer of blood is called
(a) leukemia
(b) lymphoma
(c) sarcoma
(d) hybridoma

Q33 The term totipotency was coined by
(a) Morgan
(b) de Vries
(c) Schwann
(d) Schleiden

Q34 The wood of gymnosperm is
(a) polyxylic
(b) monoxylic
(c) monoxylic and polyxylic
(d) monoxylic and manoxylic

Q.36. Which inflorescence is present in Apiaceae?
(a) Umbel
(b) Catkin
(c) Hypanthodium
(d) Cymose

Q.37. Bordered pits are present in
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Dicot
(d) monocot

Q. 38. Most advanced dicot family is
(a) Asteraceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Asclepiadaceae
(d) none above

Q. 39. Which of the following sex linked diseases affect men the most?
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Kwashiorkor
(d) Muscular distrophy

Q. 40. Rearrangement of layers occurs in
(a) blastulation
(b) Gastrulation
(c) organogenesis
(d) morulation

Q. 41. Which of the following is not the reflex action?
(a) Blinking of eye
(b) Swallowing of food
(c) Removal of hand on pricking
(d) While hand is put on hot substance

Q. 42. Colchicine
(a) hinders cell plate formation
(b) favours spindle formation
(c) duplication of DNA
(d) none above

Q. 43. Oestrous cycle occurs in
(a) Invertebrates
(b) vertebrates
(c) all mammals
(d) all mammals other than primates

Q. 44. Sperm maturation occurs in
> (a) epidydimis
(b) Leydig cells
(c) testes
(d) seminiferous tubules

Q. 45. Acrosome is formed by
(a) mitochondria
(b) nucleus
(c) cytoplasm
(d) Golgi

Q. 46. A homozygous tall is crossed with Tt. F1 generation is
(a) 100% tall
(b) 100% dwarf
(c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf
(d) none of these

Q. 47.A cross between a hetrozygous tall (Tt) and homozygous tall (TT) there are 12 progeny. How many of these will be tall?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 12

Q. 48. In aerobic respiration the electron is received at the last by
(a) FMN
(b) FAD
(c) CoQ
(d) none of these

Q. 49. Muscle fatigue occurs due to
(a) lactic acid accumulation
(b) citric acid accumulation
(c) Ca deposition
(d) all of these

Q. 50. One of these is used in biogas plant
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Methanobacteria
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Rhizobium

Q. 51. Pollution indicator is
(a) lichen
(b) Agrobacterium
(c) both above
(d) none above

Q. 52. Pneumatophores are exceptional to
(a) plants of Sunderbans and Andaman Nicobar
(b) mangrooves
(c) Avicenna and Rhizophora
(d) all above

Q. 53. Which is the first step of taxonomy?
(a) Naming
(b) Classification
(c) Identification
(d) Hierarchial arrangement

Q. 54. What is the difference between DNA of chloroplast and nuclear DNA?
(a) Single DNA in chloroplast
(b) Less number of bases in DNA chloroplast
(c) absence of histone proteins
(d) all above

Q. 55. Growth can be measured by
(a) potometer
(b) manometer
(c) auxanometer
(d) clinostat

Q. 56. Dangerous jaundice and fastest spreading through conraminated food and water is is caused by
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) HIV
(d) Hepatitis C

Q.57. Pyruvic acid undergoes decarboxylation during
(a) anaerobic respiration
(b) fermentation
(c) aerobic respiration
(d) all of these

Q. 58. The zymase acts upon
(a) glucose
(b) invert sugar
(c) fructose
(d) none of these

Q. 59. Okazaki fragments are united by
(a) ligase
(b) permease
(c) helicase
(d) topoisomerase

Q. 60. Cryptchordism is
(a) nonplacement of testis in scrotal sac
(b) movement of intestine in gubernaculum canal
(c) abnormal size of testis
(d) none of these

Many more Questions with answers to follow………

1. Light band has which of the following Filament protein
(a) myosin
(b) actin
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.

2. “Largest skeletal muscle” is present in

(a) thigh
(b) neck
(c) back
(d) belly.

3. Hinge joint is present in (a) elbow
(b) pivot
(c) interphalanges
(d) atlas.

4. Tidal volume
(a) 5000 ml
(b) 500 ml
(c) 800 ml
(d) 1000 ml

5. R.Q is infinite in
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) carbohydrates
(d) none of these.

6. Total muscle in human body are
(a) 639
(b) 629
(c) 649
(d) 739.

7. Bilateral symmetry is absent in
(a) mammal
(b) Obelia
(c) frog
(d) octopus.

8. Heart sound which is longer is
(a) lubb
(b) dup
(c) both equal
(d) sometime
(a) and sometime (b).

9. Microtubule is involved in the
(b) DNA recognition
(c) muscle contraction
(d) membrane functioning.

10. Which blood group don’t have any antigen?
(a) A
(b) 0
(c) B
(d)AB.

11. Ganga Action Plan was started in
(a) 1947
(b) 1956
(c) 1982
(d) 1985

12. World Wildlife Fund (W.W.F) was organised by UNESCO in
(a) 1961
(b) 1983
(c) 1931
(d) 1915.

213. Where is Todaba National Park?
(a) Bombay
(b) Cochin
(c) Chennai
(d) Chandrapura.

14. Gall bladder is absent in
(a) cow
(b) pig
(c) horse
(d) cat.

15. “ Your food shall be your medicine“. This quotation was given by

(a) Newton
(b) Hippocrates
(c) Einstein
(d) Lenz.

16. The term, ‘proteins’ was first used by
(a) Berzelius
(b) Funk
(c) Kuhne
(d) Marconi.

17. Joint between two cartilages is called
(a) fibro cartilage joint
(b) synovial joint
(c) ellipsoid joint
(d) all of these.

1618. The term, “Tissue” was coined by
(a) Bichat
(b) Millikon
(c) Maxwell
(d) Diroe.

19. Water is absorbed mainly by
(a) large intestine
(b) small intestine
(c) stomach
(d) pancreas.

20. Adult R.B.C. are produced by
(a) thymus
(b) yellow bone marrow
(c) red bone marrow
(d) heart.

21. Vitamin K is necessary for
(a) R.B.C
(b) W.B.C
(c) plasma
(d) production of prothrombin.

22. Double fertilization was given by
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Maxwell
(c) Einstein
(d) Antony Hewert.

23. What is the value of pulse pressure?
(a) 80 mm of Hg
(b) 120 mm of Hg
(c) 40 mm of Hg
(d) 60 mm of Hg.

24. The response of different organism to the environmental rhythms of light and
darkness is
(a) phototaxis
(b) photonastic
(c) vernalization
(d) photoperiodism

25. The branch of biology dealing with the process of improvement of human race by selective breeding is called
(a) euthenics
(b) eugenics
(c) euphenics
(d) obstetrics

1626. Where does the conversion of harmful prussic acid into potassium sulphocyanide takes place? ?
(a) spleen
(b) liver
(c) bone marrow
(d) lymph glands

27. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are
(a) adrenergic
(b) cholinergic
(c) synergic
(d) hypergognic

28. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to hyposecretion of
(a) oxytocin
(b) vasopressin
(c) thymosine
(d) insulin

29. Arbor vitae is composed of
(a) grey matter
(b) neuroglial cells
(c) white matter
(d) all of these

30. A disease in many Africans, which reduces oxygen uptake by blood and is a genetic disease is called
(a) anaemia
(b) haemophilia
(c) sickle cell anaemia
(d) pernicious anaemia

31. Typhoid fever is caused by
(a) Giardia
(b) Salmonella
(c) Shigella
(d) Escherichia.

32. Which of the following is used in genetic engineering
(a) restriction endonuclease
(b) Mycobacterium
(c) Entamoeba

33. What is called insufficiency of Oxygen?
(a) Hypoxia
(b) Xeroxia
(c) Angina
(d) Cough.

34. Stipular tendril modification is found in
(a) Smilax
(b) pea
(c) guava
(d) touch-me-not

35. Blood circulation is open in

(a) human
(b) cow
(c) apes
(d) cockroach.

36. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) arthritis is communicable disease
(b) arteries have thick wall
(c) veins have thick wall
(d) all of the above.

37. Which of the following is heterothallic fungi?
(a) Albugo
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Claviceps
(d) Yeast.
38. Number of pairs of floating ribs in man are
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 2.

39. Pollination under water occurs in
(a) Zostera
(b) Nymphaea
(c) Vallisneria
(d) none of the above.

40. Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is decided by
(a) r-RNA
(b) t-RNA
(c) m-RNA
(d) DNA.

41. Dry wooden stakes, if driven into a small crack in a rock and then soaked, can develop enough pressure to split the rock. Such a pressure is built up through the phenomena of
(a) imbibition
(b) turgor pressure
(c) prop roots
(d) butteress roots.

42. Sound above what level is considered hazardous noise pollution?
(a) above 150 dB
(b) above 120 dB
(c) above 80 dB
(d) below 30 dB.

43. The mode of DNA replication is semiconservative. It was first demonstrated by
(a) Tayler
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Khorana
(d) Meselson and Stahl.

44. Hybrid vigour is induced by
(a) clonal selection
(b) crossing in same plant
(c) crossing two plant
(d) none of these.

45. DNA is associated with highly basic proteins called
(a) histones
(b) albumins
(c) non-histones
(d) all of these.

46. If an organism is crossed with homozygous recessive individual, it is called
(a) back cross
(b) simple cross
(c) test cross
(d) monohybrid cross.

47. L.S.D. causes
(a) cancer
(b) chronic sensation
(c) severe damage to CNS
(d) both (b) and (c).

48. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of
(a) nervous tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) fibrous connective tissue,

49. The arrangement of ear ossicles in mammal ear is
(a) stapes, malleus, incus
(b) malleus, incus, stapes
(c) incus, malleus, stapes
(d) columella, malleus, incus.

50. What is caused by Claviceps purpurea?
(a) Dandruff
(b) blindness
(c) ergotism
(d) ring disease

51. Which of the following is communicable disease?
(a) kwashiorkar
(b) diabetes
(c) hypertension
(d) diphtheria.

52. Biologically, marriage is prohibited between
(a) Rh+ boy and Rh+ girl
(b) Rh- boy and Rh- girl
(c) Rh+ boy and Rh- girl
(d) Rh-boy and Rh+ girl

53. Emasculation means
(a) removal of sepal
(b) removal of petal
(c) removal of stamens
(d) removal of carpe

54.Which of the following type of phytohormones resemble the nucleic acids in some structural aspects?
(a) Cytokinins
(b) Auxin
(c) gibberellins
(d) abscisic acid.

55. If a cell increases in volume when kept in a solution the solution must be
(a) hypotonic
(b) hypertonic
(c) isotonic
(d) none of the above.

56. Which are the dense forests?
(a) tropical evergreen forests
(b) tropical deciduous forests
(c) savannah
(d) chappral.

57. The number of different teeth (incisors, canines,premolars and molars) in each human jaw are
(a) 4, 4,6,4
(b) 4, 2, 4, 6
(c) 4,2,5,6
(d) 6, 2, 4, 4.

58. Mumps is a viral infection of
(a) liver
(b) parotid gland
(c) tonsil
(d) pancreas.

59. Laboratory weed is
(a) Neurospora
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Chara
(d) Aspergillus

60. The part which we eat in mango is
(a) epicarp
(b) mesocarp
(c) endocarp
(d) seed.

61. Identify the pair of nucleotides which are joined by 3 hydrogen bonds in double stranded DNA
(a) AG
(b) AT
(c) TG
(d) CG.

62. What would be a complimentary sequence GATTACA?
(a) GCGUUAG
(b) CTAATGT
(c) CGCAAUT
(d) GCGTTUC.

63. Bulliform cells respond to which change ?
(a) Turgor pressure
(b) Osmotic pressure
(c) photosensitisation
(d) none of the above.

64. Bacterial genomes consist of
(a) circular, ss RNA
(b) circular, dsDNA
(c) linear, triple stranded DNA
(d) zig-zag DNA.

65 Annual rings are found in plants belonging to
(a) arabic regions
(b) temperate areas
(c) tropics
(d) near sea beaches.

66. Histogen theory was proposed by
(a) Hanstein
(b) Eamu
(c) Strasburger
(d) Schmidt.

67. Which ion accumulates in the guard cells at the time of opening of stomata?
(a) P
(b) K
(c) Mg
(d) Ca.

68. Wilting occurs due to excessive
(a) transpiration
(b) respiration
(c) guttation
(d) absorption.

69. Hydroponics is
(a) plant growth in mineral deficient soil
(b) soil conservation
(c) plant growth under laboratory condition
(d) plant growth in liquid culture medium.

70. The mineral constituent of the cell wall is
(a) Fe
(b) Mg
(c) K
(d) Ca.

71. Active transport requires
(a) ATP
(b) acetylcholine
(c) ADP
(d) none of these.

72. Cyclic photophosphorylation forms
(a) ATP
(b) ATP and NADPH
(c) NADPH
(d) Oxygen, ATP and NADPH

73.Serpentine is extracted from
(a) Rauwolfia
(b) Calendula
(c) Atropa
(d) Aconitum.

74. Genetic traits are often carried on separate chromosomes. Which of the following genotype represents a dihybrid organism?
(a) TTRR
(b) TtRr (c) ttrr
(d) ttRr.

75. Dead cells that serve a mechanical function are called
(a) sclerenchyma
(b) companion cells
(c) wood parenchyma
(d) collenchyma

76. Action potential has ——value.
(a) + (20-30) mV
(c) – (20-30) mV
(b) + (60-70) mV
(d) – (60-70) mV.

77. Photosynthesis is maximum in
(a) blue light
(b) green light
(c) red light
(d) ultraviolet light.

78. Translocation of carbohydrates occur as
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) maltose
(d) sucrose.

79. Which of the following possess both PS-I and PS-II?
(a) Purple sulphur bacteria
(b) Green sulphur bacteria
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Purple non sulphur bacteria.

80. Number of nuclei present in a common embryosac are
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c)12
(d) 24.

81. A population derived from asexual reproduction which consist of genetically identical individuals
(a) deme
(b) clone
(c) aggregate
(d) callie.
82. Palynology is the study of
(a) palms
(b) flowers
(c) fruits
(d) pollen grain.

83. Perisperm is
(a) remains of nucleus
(b) outer part of embryo sac
(c) degenerated synergid
(d) degenerated secondary nucleus

84. Movement of sperms towards archegonial neck is
(a) chemotropism
(b) photoaxis
(c) chemotaxis
(d) hydrotropism.

16. The term, ‘proteins’ was first used by
(a) heating
(b) ethylene
(c) nitrogen
(d) I.A.A.

86. Major protein in our body is

(a) collagen
(b) scotopsin
(c) pepsin
(d) ptyalin.

16. The term, ‘proteins’ was first used by 87. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrete
(a) pepsinogen
(b) chymotrypsin
(c) pepsin
(d) trypsin

88. Which of the following influences the activity of kidney?
(a) Gonadotrophins
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Vasopressin and adrenalin
(d) thyroxine.

89. Biceps and triceps are found in
(a) fore arm
(b) upper arm
(c) thigh
(d) shoulder.

90. Master endocrine gland is

(a) thyroid
(b) pituitary
(c) parathyroid
(d) pineal.
91.Insulin is secreted by pancreas in
(a) alpha cells
(b) beta-cells
(c) delta-cells
(d) acini.

92. Temperature of the scrotum which is necessary for functioning of testis is always below body temperature. This difference is
(a) 2°C
(b) 3°C
(c) 4° C
(d) 6°C.

93. Which one is an example of polygenic inheritance in man?
(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Skin colour
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Phenylketonuiria.

94. A heamophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability that their son will be haemophilic?
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 0%.

95. Sex of the child is determined by
(a) male chromosome
(b) female chromosome
(c) size of egg
(d) size of sperm.

96. Sympatric isolation is which type of behaviour ?
(a) Geographical isolation
(b) Reproductive isolation
(c) Mimicry
(d) Parasitism.

<97. Which of the following is responsible for unwinding DNA double helix structure
(a) Topoisomerase
(b) DNA gyrase
(c) DNA ligase
(d) DNA polymerase.

98. Co-discoverer of Darwinism was
(a) Galton
(b) Buffon
(c) Malthus
(d) Wallace.

99. Mechanism of uric acid excretion in a nephron is of
(a) osmosis
(b) diffusion
(c) secretion
(d) ultrafiltration

100. Malathion, parathion belong to group of
(a) triazines
(b) carbamates
(c) pyrethenoids
(d) organophosphates

__________________________________________________

Please find all the solutions of the questions in ….Pradeep’s Objective Biology 2009 Edition …by…Dr S Biswas & Dr A . Biswas
__________________________________________________

BVP PUNE Sample Biology Paper 2009
__________________________________________________

1 Volant adaptation is for

(a) swimming
(b) flying
(c) climbing
(d) running

2. Golden age of reptiles is
(a) coenozoic
(b) palaeozoic
(c) mesozoic
(d) archaeozoic

3. Temperature required for hatching hen’s eggs is
(a) 27-28 oC
(b) 30-32 oC
(c) 37-38 oC
(d) 40-42 oC

<4. Unit of evolution is
(a) individual
(b) community
(c) species
(d) population

5. Who was the first to describe that species is the unit of classification
(a) John Ray
(b) Huxley
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Engler

6. Wildlife refers to
(a) domesticated animals
(b) animals living in their natural habitat
(c) organisms living in jungles
(d) carnivore animals

7. Which of the following is a poikilotherm ?
(a) Snake
(b) Bat
(c) Pigeon
(d) Squirrel

8. One of the following blood vessel is without valves
(a) artery
(b) pulmonary artery
(c) vein
(d) aorta

9 Which of the following corpuscle has kidney shaped nucleus?
(a) eosinophill
(b) monocyte
(c) neutrophill
(d) lymphocyte

10. 80-85% of CO2 is transported as
(a) carbonic acid
(b) carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) bicarbonates
(d) carbamino compounds

11. Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) ascorbic acid
(c) riboflavin
(d) thiamine

12. Balanced diet contains
(a) 82-85% carbohydrates, 10-15% fats and 7.5 % proteins
(b) 82-85% fats, 10-15% carbohydrates and 7.5 % proteins
(c) 82-85% proteins, 10-15% fats and 7.5 % carbohydrates
(d) 82-85% fats, 10-15% proteins and 7.5 % carbohydrates

13. Murmur sound is disorder of
(a) heart valves
(b) AV node
(c) SA node
(d) Pulmonary vein

14. Closed blood circulation in vessels was discovered by
(a) Landsteiner
(b) Sturli
(c) William Harvey
(d) Einthoven

15. In open vascular system, the circulating fluid is called
(a) perilymph
(b) lymphatic fluid
(c) haemolymph
(d) blood

16. Population is
(a) individuals in a family
(b) species in a community
(c) community in an ecosystem
(d) individuals in a species

17. Population keeps on changing this means
(a) dynamics of population
(b) population growth
(c) population explosion
(d) ethology of population

18. Pollutant released from paddy field is
(a) H2O2
(b) CO2
(c) CH4
(d) CO

19. Thermal pollution means
(a) increase in temperature of water
(b) Oxygen depletion
(c) death of aquatic animals
(d) all above

20. Sleeping pills are
(a) barbiturates
(b) hallucinogens
(c) stimulants
(d) depressants

21. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) does not contain
(a) frozen – protoplasm
(b) platelets
(c) factor VIII
(d) gammaglobulins

22. In correct reference the biochemical basis of vaccination was given by
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Salk
(c) Kohler
(d) Landsteiner

23. In animal body glycoproteins are formed against viruses to combat viral infection.They are
(a) phytoalexins
(b) antibodies
(c) interferons
(d) antigens

24. Plant viruses have
(a) DNA
b) RNA
(c) RNA or DNA
(d) RNA and DNA

25. Acromian process is a part of
(a) pelvic girdle
(b) pectoral girdle
(c) humerus
(d) femur

26. The number of bones in appendicular skeleton are
(a) 206
(b) 120
(c) 80
(d) 126

27. Gliding joint is present in
(a) radius and humerus
(b) pelvic girdle and femur
(c) in between the prezygapophyses and post zygapophyses of vertebrae
(d) femur and acetabulum

28. Fibrous joints are also called
(a) amphithropouss
(b) pivot joint
(c) diarthrous
(d) synarthous

29. Fourth cranial nerve is
(a) Trochlear
(b) Abducens
(c) Trigeminal
(d) Vagus

30. Duct of Sylvius is another name of
(a) Iter
(b) sulci
(c) foramen of Monro
(d) gyrus

31. Which of the following hormone initiates spermatogenesis ?
(a) FSH
(b) Testosterone
(c) prostaglandin
(d) androgen

32. Hypothyroidism causes
(a) creatinism
(b) myxoedema
(c) acromegaly
(d) dwarfism

33. Which of these hormones influences water reabsorption in collecting tubule ?
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Angiotensin
(d) Renin

34. Which of these are uricotelic?
(a) frog, crow and crocodile
(b) salamander, pigeon and crow
(c) crow, garden lizards and Eagle
(d) squirrel,lizard and tiger

35. Pulse Pressure is
(a) systolic pressure
(b) diastolic pressure
(c) systolic pressure and diastolic pressure
(d) difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

36. The maintenance of a constant environment inside the body is
(a) homeostasis
(b) osmoregulation
(c) adaptation
(d) chemotaxis

37. Which of the following is a true fish?
(a) Dog fish
(b) silver fish
(c) cray fish
(d) jelly fish

38. One of these have single ovary
(a) Aves
(b) reptiles
(c) amphibians
(d) mammals

39. Gastrulation means
(a) formation of three germ layers
(b) formation of archenteron
(c) morphogenetic movements
(d) all of these

40. Thick cells surrounding the oocyte in Graffian follicle are
(a) zona radiata
(b) zona pellucida
(c) zona vasiculosa
(d) membrane granulosa

41. Which of these show paleontological evidence for evolution?
(a) Darwin finches
(b) Duck billed Platypus
(c) Archaeopteryx
(d) Biston betularia

42. RNA granules in neurons are
(a) Nissl
(b) islet of Langerhans
(c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(d) axons

43. The cells used for the filtration for urine formation are
(a) squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) ciliated epithelium

44. Anticoagulant of fresh water leech is
(a) hirudin
(b) heparin
(c) sodium citrate
(d) chelating agent

45. They are also called glass sponges
(a) Hyalospongiae
(b) Dermospongiae
(c) Calcospongia
(d) Sycon

46. Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesized by
(a) head of sperm
(b) lysosome of acrosome
(c) Golgi apparatus of acrosome
(d) tail of sperm

47. Resolving power of the electron microscope is
(a) 0.0000000005 mm
(b) 0.0000000005 um
(c) 2 um
(d) 0.2 mm

48. Length of the silk thread produced by one cocoon is
(a) 300 -400 meters
(b) 600 -900 meters
(c) 200 – 300 meters
(b) less than 200 meters

49. During evolution of man ————came after Dryopithecus
(a) Ramapithecus
(b) proconsul
(c) Shivapithecus
(d) Australopithecus

50. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus weighing 60 Kg is
(a) 970 cc
(b) 1070 cc
(c) 1200 cc
(d) 1500 cc

51. Which is a unit of taxonomic category?
(a) Series
(b) Glamaceae
(c) Class
(d) Phyllum

52. Who discovered sex-linked inheritance?
(a) Mendel
(b) Morgan
(c) Galton
(d) Muller

53. The number of sori on the sporophyll in Nephrolepis are
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

54. In which year Julian Huxley gave the New Systematics?
(a) 1940
(b) 1840
(c) 1801
(d) 1901

55. Five kingdom classification was given by
(a) Whittaker (1969)
(b) Linnaeus (1758)
(c) Copeland (1966)
(d) Haeckel (1866)

56. The radioisotopes used for experimentation on photosynthesis are
(a) C14 and O18
(b) C14 and O16
(c) C12 and O18
(d) C12 and O16

57. Most of the cereals used during present days are
(a) autoploid
(b) allotetraploid
(c) diploid
(d) true and pur breeding

58. A plant triploid and sexually sterile which gives
(a) no embryo but fruit
(b) no fruit
(c) hexaploid fruits
(d) embryo but no fruit

59. Which of the following is possible for linked gene?
(a) Independent assortment occurs but no segregation
(b) segregation but no independent assortment
(c) Law of dominanace and Law of segregation
(d) Not law of dominance but segregation

60. The phenomenon of segregation and independent assortment occurs in
(a) meiosis I during gamete formation
(b) zygote division
(c) segregation during meiosis I and independent assortment of characters during fusion
(d) fusion of male and female gametes

61. Crossing over occurs between two homologous chromosomes in
(a) Leptotene
(b) diplotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Zygotene

62. Vascular bundle in fern is
(a) leptocentric
(b) amphivasal
(c) amphiphloic
(d) collateral

63. ATP is formed directly without ETS during
(a) succinic acid to succinyl CoA
(b)alpha- ketoglutarate to succinate
(c) isocitrate to ketoglutarate
(d) succinate to fumarate

64. A molecule of FAD
(a) forms 2 ATP
(b) use one oxygen molecule
(c) both above
(d) uses one water molecule

65. Formation of alcohol by yeast is
(a) anaerobic process
(b) extracellular
(c) microbial
(d) all above

66. The term enzyme was coined by
(a) de Duve
(b) Kuhne
(c) C. Darwin
(d) de Candolle

67. Streptomycin is obtained from
(a) bacteria
(b) actinomycetes
(c) unicellular fungi
(d) mycelial fungi

68. The electron release and first acceptor of electron in PS II is
(a) P680, cyt Q
(b) P700, PQ
(c) P680, Cyt.b
(d) P700, FRS

69. Which element is useful for seed germination?
(a) B
(b) Fe
(c) Mo
(d) Zn

70. The response of plants towards stimulus is
(a) Nastic
(b) autonomic
(c) Paratonic
(d) nutation

71. Eicchornia and Pistia are used for
(a) synfuel
(b) liquid hydrocarbons
(c) biogas
(d) Ethanol

72. Which of the follwoing is used to clear water bodies ?
(a) Eicchornia
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Chlorella
(d) Cyanobacteria

73. Which of the following provides energy and manure?
(a) Petrocrops
(b) biogas
(c) energy crops
(d) all above

74. Which of the following is a biofertilizer?
(a) green manure and compost
(b) cyanobacteria and green manure
(c) PAN
(d) CAM

75. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(a) Biogas contains nitrogen 55%
(b) Producer gas has 33% CO
(c) CO2 is the major constituent in biogas and producer gas
(d) none of these

76. Pollination by bats is
(a) malacophily
(b) ornithophily
(c) entomophily
(d) chiropteriphily

77. Nucleoside is
(a) nucleotide minus phosphate group
(b) pentose sugar and nitogenous base
(c) both above
(d) nucleotide plus phosphate

78. Chromatography technique was developed by
(a) Wilkins
(b) Steward
(c) Tswett
(d) Zernike

79. Analysis of human population on the basis of statistics is
(a) biometry
(b) biostatistics
(c) both above
(d) exobiology

80. Hereditary material for TMV is
(a) ssRNA
(b) ssDNA
(c) dsRNA
(d) dsDNA

81. Transformation in Diplococcus pneumoniae was discovered by
(a) Avery,McCleod and McCarty
(b) Griffith
(c) Hershy and Chase
(d) Morgan

82. How many types of gametes will be formed by the following ? YYRRtt
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) none of these

83. One of the follwoing is most efficient in bringing mutations
(a) crossing over
(b) colchicine
(c) hybridization
(d) X-rays

84. Ashbya gossypi is
(a) bacterium producing antibodies
(b) actinomycetes producing Vit. A
(c) fungus producing riboflavin
(d) A fungus producing cyanocobalamin

85. In classic description the term species was recognized by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Huxley
(c) John Ray
(d) C. Darwin

86. Choose the correct statement
(a) Chl a is blue green pigment with formula C55H70O6N4Mg
(b) Chl a is blue green pigment with formula C55H72O5N4Mg
(c) Chl b is yellow green pigment with formula C55H70O5N4Mg
(d) Xanthin is pigment with formula C40H60

87. The link between EMP and TCA is
(a) Pyruvic acid
(b) OAA
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) FAD

88. The physical basis of life ‘protoplasm’ was named by
(a) Von Mohl
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Huxley
(d) Robert Brown

89. Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus convert
(a) NH3 to nitrite
(b) nitrite to nitrate
(c) nitrate to nitrite
(d) urea to ammonia

90. Plant cells generally have cell wall but certain plant cells lack one of the following
(a) pollen grains
(b) male gamete
(c) female gamete
(d) both b and c

91. Clones progeny can be prepared from parent plant
(a) somatogamy
(b) stem cutting
(c) any of the spores
(d) all of these
92. Down syndrome means
(a) an extra autosome chromosome
(b) extra Y chromosome
(c) a loss of chromosome
(d) extra X chromosome

93. Female sex organ of red algae is
(a) carpogonia
(b) ascogonia
(c) oogonia
(d) archaegonia

94. Azadirachtin is obtained from

(a) Neem
(b) Cinchona
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Chrysanthemum

95. Jowar has one cotyledon called
(a) coleoptile
(b) coleorhiza
(c) aleurone
(d) scutellum

96. Chain of rod shaped bacteria is called
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Streptobacillus
(d) Staphylobacillus

97. Association of fungi with pteridophytes, bryophytes,gymnosperms and angiosperms is called
(a) helotism
(b) mutualism
(c) mycorrhizae
(d) ammensalism

98. When funiculus, micropyle and chalaza are in straight line the ovule is
(a) orthotropous
(b) campylotropous
(c) anatropous
(d) hemianatropous

99. Blue green algae are known as
(a) cyanobacteria
(b) archaebacteria
(c) eubacteria
(d) actinomycetes

100. Which is organic manure ?
(a) FYM and bacterial nodule
(b) compost and green manure
(c) compost and green bacteria
(d) VAM and higher plants

Punjab Medical Entrance Test

An examination conducted each year for admission to various medical courses namely MBBS/BDS/BAMS/BHMS in all the medical, dental, Ayurvedic/Homoeopathic Institutes across Punjab.India
Punjab Medical Entrance Test is conducted by Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot on behalf of Guru Nanak Dev University (GNDU), Amritsar.

Eligibility criteria:
1. The appearing candidate must have cleared class 12th examination from a recognized board or any other equivalent examination.
2. The candidate must also have studied PCB in the last 3 years of education.

Proposed important dates:
1. Mid may 2009 – availability of application forms.
2. 22nd june 2009 – date of entrance examination.

List of participating colleges:
1. MBBS Medical College
2. Medical College
3. Guru Gobind Singh Medical College
4. Dayanand Medical College
5. Shri Guru Ram Dass Instt. of Med. Sciences & Research
6. BDS Dental College
7. Dental College
8. Sri Guru Ram Das Instt, of Dental Sciences
9. Dasmesh Instt. of Dental Sciences & Research
10. Khalsa Dental College and Hospital
11. Guru Nanak Dental College & Research Institute
12. Baba Jaswant Singh Dental College
13. BAMS Shri Lakshirnarain Ayd College
14. Govt Ayd College
15. Dayanand Ayd College
16. Mai Bhago Ayd. College
17. Guru Nanak Ayd College
18. Desh Bhagat Ayd Med
19. Sat Sai Murli Dhar Ayd. Med College
20. Lala Lajpat Rai Memorial Ayd. College

Examination pattern and syllabus:
1. The duration of examination is 2.5 hours.
2. The exam will contain 50 questions each from Physics, chemistry, botany, zoology
3. +4 for correct answer
4. -1 for wrong answer
5. The examination will contain MCQs based on class 11th and 12th syllabus.

BIOLOGY SYLLABUS FOR PUNJAB PMT 2009

I Diversity in Living World
Diversity of living organisms
Classification of the living organisms (five kingdom classification, major groups and principles of classification within each kingdom).
Systematics and binomial System of nomenclature
Salient features of animal (non chordates up to phylum level and chordates up to class level) and plant (major groups; Angiosperms up to subclass) classification.
Botanical gardens, herbaria, zoological parks and museums.

II Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tissues in animals and plants.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different parts of flowering plants: Root, stem, leaf, inflorescence, flower, fruit and seed.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems of an annelid (earthworm), an insect (cockroach) and an amphibian (frog).

III CELL: STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
Cell: cell wall, cell membrane and cell organelles’ (plastids, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies/dictyosomes, ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, centrioles) and nuclear organization.
Mitosis, meiosis, cell cycle.
Basic chemical constituents of living bodies.
Structure and functions of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Enzymes: types, properties and function.

IV Plant Physiology
Movement of water, food, nutrients and gases, Plants and Water Mineral nutrition, respiration, Photosynthesis, Plant growth and development.

V Human Physiology
Digestion and absorption.
Breathing and respiration.
Body fluids and circulation.
Excretory products and elimination.
Locomotion and movement.
Neural control and coordination,
chemical coordination and regulation.

I SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
Pollination and fertilization in flowering plants. Development of seeds and fruits.
Human reproduction: reproductive system in male and female, menstrual cycle. Production of gametes, fertilization, implantation, ,embryo development, pregnancy and parturation. Reproductive health – birth control, contraception and sexually transmitted diseases.

II GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
Mendelian inheritance. Chromosome theory of inheritance, deviations from Mendelian ratio (gene interaction- Incomplete dominance, co-dominance, complementary genes, multiple alleles). Sex determination in human beings: XX, XY. Linkage and crossing over. Inheritance pattern of haemophilia and blood groups in human beings. DNA: replication, transcription, translation. Gene expression and regulation. Genome and Human Genome Project. DNA fingerprinting. Evolution: Theories and evidences.

III BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE
• Animal husbandry.
• Basic concepts of immunology, vaccines.
• Pathogens, Parasites.
• Plant breeding, tissue culture, food production.
• Microbes in household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment and energy generation.
• Cancer and AIDS.
• Adolescence and drug/alcohol abuse.

IV BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
• Recombinant DNA technology.
• Applications in Health, Agriculture and Industry
• Genetically modified (GM) organisms; biosafety issues.
• Insulin and Bt cotton

V ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT
• Ecosystems: components, types and energy flow.
• Species, population and community.
• Ecological adaptations.
• Centres of diversity and conservation of biodiversity, National parks and sanctuaries.
• Environmental issues.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

These questions came from the brain box of Inderjit Singh of BBIPL, Chandigarh who appeared in the PMT GGSIPU Examination held in May 2009. We thank him for the contributions.

Biology Paper 2009 PMT GGSIPU Answered

1. In an annual ring the light portion (on inner side of cambium) is
(a) sap wood
(b) heart wood
(c) autumn wood
(d) summer wood

2. Standing crop means
(a) mass of living matter at first trophic level
(b) The total amount of living organisms, as of plankton, in a specific area at a given time
(c) The total amount of only plants in area at given time
(d) The total amount of animals in specific area at a given time

3. cDNA probes are copied from mRNA molecule with the help of
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(d) Taq polymerase

4. Vascular bundles are open means
(a) cambial activity is absent
(b) cambial activity is anomalous
(c) cambial activity leads to secondary growth
(d) cambial activity short lived

5. Edible banana is called parthenocarpic
(a) fruit as it is formed without fertilization
(b) as it develops from egg formed without fertilization
(c) as the ovary ripens immediately after fertilization
(d) as it is a result of sexual reproduction

6. High BOD means pollution by
(a) nitrogen fertilizers and pesticides
(b) high organic matter as faecal matter
(c) high industrial wastes
(d) high detergents

7. Photorespiration occurs in
(a) Mitochondria and peroxisomes
(b) chloroplast
(c) peroxisomes
(d) Mitochondria , chloroplast and peroxisomes

8. The plumule of wheat is enclosed in
(a) scutellum
(b) coleorhiza’s
(c) coleoptile
(d) caruncle

9. Transpiration is not dependent upon
(a) companion cells
(b) ambient temperature
(c) tracheary elements
(d) soil moisture

10.Denitrification is caused by
(a) Nitosomonas
(b) Nitrobacter
(c) Nitrosococcus
(d) Pseudomonas

Many more question would be provided during the online classes from June 2009

_____________________________________________________
Answers to Biology Paper 2009 PMT GGSIPU
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. d

Questions for Mains (Final) PMT GGSIPU Examination 2009

1. Clover leaf shaped nucleic acid is
(a) DNA
(b) m-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) t-RNA

2. During meiosis the disjunction of chromosomes can be seen in stage
(a) Anaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Metaphase I
(d) Metaphase II

3. Malpighian cells are
(a) Brachysclereids
(b) Macrosclereids
(c) Astrosclereids
(d) Trichosclereids

4. The cells which help in rolling and unrolling of leaf lamina in grasses are
(a) Complementary cells
(b) Motor cells
(c) Passage cells
(d) companion cells

5. The seat of origin of the lateral roots is
(a) Epidermis
(b) Cortex
(c) Endodermis
(d) Pericycle

6. Reverse transcriptase enzymes are employed in
(a) to cut DNA molecule
(b) Join DNA fragments
(c) Synthesis complementary DNA from m-RNA
(d) Introduce recombinant DNA into host

7. The substance used in the tissue culture media for shoot induction in the callus is
(a) ABA
(b) GA3
(c) IAA
(d) kinetin

8. Spirullina is an example of
(a) Biopesticide
(b) Biofertilizer
(c) Edible fungi
(d) single cell protein

9. The diploid phase in the life cycle of Spirogyra is represented by
(a) female gamete
(b) zygospore
(c) aplanospore
(d) akinete

10. Promycelium in Rhizopus dovelops from
(a) Zygophore
(b) Chlamydospore
(c) Zygospore
(d) Sporangiospore

11. Which of the following one belongs to gametophytic pahse in Funaria ?
(a) Capsule
(b) Operculum
(c) Apophysis
(d) Calyptra

12. Sex organs in Pteris are produced on
(a) Dorsal side of the prothallus
(b) Ventral side of prothallus
(c) Margins of the fertile leaflets
(d) Apices of Sporophytic stem

13. Endosperm of Cycas is
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid

14. Oxytetracycline is obtained from
(a) Streptomyces ramosus
(b) Bacillus licheniformis
(c) Bacillus polymyxa
(d) Corynbacterium glutamicum

15. The virus which causes ring spots in cherry is transmitted through
(a) seeds
(b) fungi
(c) insects
(d) pollen grains

16. The great Bengal famine in 1943 was due to
(a) bacterial blight of rice
(b) Neck blast of rice
(c) Brown leaf spot of rice
(d) rice tangro

17. Rust of Jowar is caused by
(a) Sphacelotheca sorghii
(b) Puccinia purpurea
(c) Sclerospora graminicola
(d) Venturia inequalis

18. An example of Xerophytic plant with cladode is
(a) Asparagus
(b) Aloe
(c) Agave
(d) Argemone

19. Mulching means

(a) Raising tho plants against slope
(b) Shallow ploughing
(c) Planting of crops in rows
(d) Layer formed by stubble and grass

20. Soil transported by wind is called
(a) Alluvial
(b) Colluvial
(c) eolin
(d) glacial

21. Who introduced the term ‘ heterosis’?

(a) Koelreuter
(b) Shull
(c) Johanssen
(d) Borlaugh

22 Jhum cultivation in hilly regions has been substituted by Government in 2001 by
(a) Mass selection
(b) Mutation breeding
(c) Taungya system
(d) Alley cropping

23. Scotoactive s stomatal movement can be observed in the leaves of
(a) Vallisneria
(b) Potamogeton
(c) Bryophyllum
(d) Nerium

24. Organism living as endosymbiont in barley is
(a) Klebsiella
(b) Azospirillum
(c) Azolla
(d) Glomus

25. Creation of crops like Atlas 60 wheat variety, golden rice and maize rich in iron is called
(a) phytoremidiation
(b) bioremediation
(c) biofortification
(d) xenobiotiics

26. Which of the following component of photosynthetic electron transport is directly involved in transport of protons from stroma to lumen of thylakoids?
(a) Plastocyanin
(b) Plastoquinone
(c) Ferridoxin
(d) phaeophytin

27. How many ATP molecules are formed in ETS from the reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide generated in one cycle of Kreb’s cycle?
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12

28. One of these is not associated with termination of protein synthesis
(a) UAA
(b) UAG
(c) UGA
(d) AUG

29. Richmond-Lang effect deals with
(a) Parthenocarpic fruit formation by auxins
(b) Foolish seedliiig disease by gibberellins
(c) delay of senescence by cytokinins
(d) Stomatal closure by ABA

30. Indentify the plant in which ‘night break’ is inhibitory in floral induction
(a) Spinach
(b) Xanthium
(c) Beet
(d) Hyoscyamus

31. Salicornia is an example of

(a) mesophyte
(b) Epiphyle
(c) Halophyte
(d) parasite

32. One of the following does not perform photosynthesis by breakdown of water.
(a) Purple bacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Higher plants
(d) None above

33. NADPH2 is produced in plants during
(a) cyclic phosphoryaltion
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) noncyclic phosphoryaltion
(d) substrate level of phosphorylation cyclic

34. Which amongst the following facilitates breakdown of water in plants?
(a) Mn
(b) Co
(c) Fe
(d) Cu

35. Pure dominant A and recessive ‘b’ and pure dominant B and recessive ‘a’ are crossed and their resultant is crossed with pure homozygous recessive for both A and B genes resulting in : 22 dominant for A and recessive for b; 4 dominant for A and dominant B; 4 recessive a and recessive b; 242 recessive A and dominant B. This represents
(a) linked inheritance
(b) Mendelian genetics
(c) multiple genes
(d) independent assortment

36. Which of the following recombinant enhance the immune response of the body?
(a) Interleukines
(b) Interferons
(c) Tissue plasminogen activator
(d) Vitamin

37. Male cockroach can be differentiated from female cockroach by presence of

(a) anal cerci
(b) anal styles
(c) antennae
(d) Malpighian tubules

38. Transgenic plants receive genes from which of the following organisms ?

(a) Insects
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) All above

39. Cartilage comprises

(a) ossein
(b) proteoglycan
(c) glycoprotein
(d) peptidoglycan

40. Deficiency of hormones,vitamin D and calcium causres

(a) osteoarthritis
(b) rheumatoid arthritis
(c) osteoporosis
(d) atherosclerosis

41. Free radicles are known to enhance old age apart from this they also responsible for
(a) cancer
(b) atherosclerosis
(c) cataract
(d) all above

42. During myocardial infarction which of the following changes occur ?
(a) PQ is enlarged
(b) ST is flattened
(c) ST is elevated
(d) T is elevated

43. EEG is used to detect
(a) tumour
(b) epilepsy
(c) tremors
(d) all of these

44. GM food produces
(a) proteins from the inserted genes
(b) antibiotic resistant enzymes
(c) enzyme from gene
(d) all of these

45. Biodiversity includes
(a) species
(b) ecosystems
(c) genes
(d) all above

46. Hot spots are characterized by
(a) their location
(b) number of endemic species with extent of threat to them
(c) developing and developed countries
(d) all above

47. Checking re-radiation of heat reflected by earth by CH4,CO2,O3 and chlorofluorocarbons is called
(a) green house effect
(b) Bohr’s effect
(c) Pasteur’s effect
(d) cosmozoc effect

48. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Osteichthys-Pristis
(b) Chordata- Silverfish
(c) Annelida -Earthworm
d) Mollusca-Pinctada

49. Phosphagens produce ATP in
(a) heart
(b) liver
(c) muscles
(d) all above

50. Production, secretion and ejection of milk is done by synergetic effect by
(a) progesterone and oestrogen
(b) oxytocin
(c) prolactin
(d) all above

51. Two nucleotides are joined by
(a) phosphate bond
(b) phosphodiester bond
(c) n-glycosidic bond
(d) phosphoester bond

52. The graft between individuals of two different species is
(a) xenograft
(b) heterograft
(c) allograft
(d) autograft

53. The strand of DNA which synthesize mRNA is
(a) sense strand
(b) antisense strand
(c) nonsense strand
(d) half sense strand and half nonsense strand

54. Modified form of central dogma of molecular biology is
(a) DNA——> proteins ——–> RNA
(b) RNA ——> DNA ——–> proteins
(c) DNA——> RNA ——–> proteins
(d) protein————->DNA———>RNA

55. Apart from protein which of the following is known to catalyze biological reactions?
(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) Hormones
(d) Vitamins

56. Carcinogens primarily act on __________ to cause mutations
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) protein
(d) mRNA

57. The mutations which are not expressive are
(a) silent
(b) non-sense
(c) misense
(d) frameshift

58. In deoxyribose which carbon atom lacks oxygen
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2

59. Parthenocarpy in grapes is induced by
(a) cytokinin
(b) gibberellins
(c) ethylene
(d) ABA

60. Fascicular cambium separates xylem and phloemn in
(a) dicots
(b) monocots
(c) both above
(d) none above

61. The most primitive to have vascular tissue is
(a) fern
(b) moss
(c) cycads
(d) brown algae

62. Animal cell is different from plant cell in lacking
(a) glyoxysomes
(b) vacuoles
(c) peroxisomes
(d) all above

63. Single stranded DNA is present in
(a) TMV
(b)phi X 174
(c) HIV
(d ) all above

64. Single stranded RNA is genetic materail of
(a) HIV
(b) polio virus
(c) TMV
(d) all of these

65. Based on the experiments conducted by Bridges on Drosophila, the female sex of Drosophila is determined by the genes located on which chromosomes?
(a) Autosomes
(b) X and Y
(c) Y
d) X

66. Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection fails to explain
(a) Role of variations
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Arrival of the fittest
(d) struggle for the existence

67. ln poultry ‘broiler finish mash’ is fed to the chicks between ——weeks
(a) 1 to 6
(b) 7 to 10
(c) 10 – 15
(d) 15 to 20

68. ln poultry the disease, Coryza is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Protozoan
(c) Virus
(d) Fungi

69. In birds the B-lymphocytes mature in
(a) Thyroid gtland
(b) bone marrow
(c) Preen gland
(d) Bursa of Fabricius

70. An example for endogenous immune complex response is
(a) Hay fever
(b) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(c) Acute glomerular nephritis
(d) Encephalitis

71. Gelatinous membrane of the sensory hair of internal ear is
(a) Reissner’s
(b) Basillar
(c) tectorial
(d) all above

72. ‘Red tide’ on the surface of the sea is due to which protozoan?
(a) Ceratium
(b) Gonyaulax
(c) Giardia
(d) Arecella

73. Giant squid belongs to
(a) Mammalia
(b) Reptilia
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Mollusca

74. The annelidian character of Peripatus is
(a) lack of jointed legs
(b) presence of tracheal tubes
(c) presence of tubular heart
(d) legs with claws

75. Spicules made of silica are found in
(a) Sycon
(b) Leucosolenia
(c) Hyalonema
(d) Grantia

76. Increase in capillary permeability is induced by
(a) Heparin
(b) Histamine
(c) Gastrin
(d) Fibrin

77. Which one of the following is is an excitatory neurotransmitter?
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Dopamine
(c) Glycine
(d) Oxytocin

78. In which group of animals blastocoel is persistant as body cavity in adults?
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Nematehelminthes
(c) Mollusca
(d) Annelida

79. The filaments in the cilia of protozoans are made up of protein
(a) actin
(b) myosin
(c) ossein
(d) tubulin

80. Metaboly is related to
(a) Digestion
(b) Reproduction
(c) Movements
(d) Excretion

81. Termites cannot digest cellulose in the absence of
(a) Trichonymphya
(b) Trychomonas
(c)Mycobacterium
d) Prions

82. The nature of the cyst wall of Euglena is
(a) proteins
(b) silica
(c) calcium
(d) carbohydrates

83. Hymenolepis nana is commonly known as
(a) Pork tapeworm
(b) Dead man’s finger
(c) Dog’s tapeworm
(d) Dwarf tapeworm of man

84. Loa loa causes
(a) Kala azar
(b) Calabar
(c) Delhi boils
(d) anaemia

85. The dorsal side of the skin of Pheretima is brown due to
(a) porphyrin
(b) melanin
(c) heparin
d) renin

86. The function of blood glands in Pheretima is
(a) Maintenance of blood volume
(b) Maintenance of blood circulation
(c) production of RBC
(d) production of phagocytes

87. The ovoviiparous parasite is
(a) Ascaris
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Taenia

88. Spermatophore of Pheretima are formed due to the secretions of
(a) prostatic glands
(b) seminal vesicles
(c) spermiducal funnels
(d) spermathecae

89. The ova of Pheretima are released through a pore present on the
(a) Ventral side of 14th segment
(b) Ventral side of 18th segment
(c) Dorsal side of 14th segment
(d) Dorsal side of 18th segment

90. External segmentation is absent in one of these animals
(a) Polychaeta
(b) Oligochaeta
(c) Hirudinea
(d) Archiannelida

91. Reduced functionless mandibles are present in
(a) Mosquito
(b) Cockroch
(c) Butterfly
(d) Bed bug

92. Tripedal walking is exhibited by
(a) Earthworm
(b) Cockroach
(c) Snail
(d) Starfish

93. The number of moults that the caterpillar of Bombyx mori undergoes is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

94. The chromosome compliment of honey bees developed parthenogenetically from unfertilized eggs is
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) polyploid

95. Coelom in cockroach is
(a) enterocoel
(b) schizocoel
(c) pseudocoel
(d) advanced coel

96. In plant ecosystem the rooted plants occur in
(a) ionosphere
(b) stratosphere
(c) limnetic zone
(d) latterol zone

97. B-lymphocytes are associated with
(a) humoral immunity
(b) production of heparin
(c) cell mediated immunity
(d) internal cleansing

98. Tandoba National Park is located in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Madhya Pradesh

99. Circular double helical DNA molecule is in
(a) virus
(b) protozoans
(c) plasmid
(d) phasmid

100. Presence of notochord throughout the life and length of the body is a feature of

(a) urochordata
(b) invertebrata
(c) vertebrata
(d) cephalochordata

_________________________________________________________

1. Gloriosa superba has parallel venation with leaf apex modified as tendril belongs to which of these families?
(a) Cucurbitaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Labiatae
(d) Liliaceae

2. In Casuarina fertilization occurs by
(a) chalazogamy
(b) mesogamy
(c) porogamy
(d) apogamy

3. Meiosis can be best studied in
(a) young anther
(b) young leaf
(c) young stem
(d) root tip

4. Late blight of potato is caused by
(a) Phytophthora infestans
(b) Alternaria
(c) Puccinia
(d) Ustilago

5. Which of the following is mainly caused in preparation of alcohol?
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Penicillium
(d) Saccharomyces

6. Which of the family represents epigynous, perigynous and hypogynous condition can be seen?
(a) Rosaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Rutaceae
(d) Leguminosae

7. Syconus is fruit of
(a) hypanthodium
(b) Coenanthium
(c) Verticillaster
(d) Cyathium

8. Pome, pepo and hesperidium are
(a) apple,Cucumis and lime
(b) lemon, apple, Cucumis
(c) apple, lemon, Cucurbit
(d) lemon, Cucumis, apple

9. Heterothallism was discovered by
(a) Blakeslee
(b) Darwin
(c) Roper and Pontecorvo
(d) de Barry

10. Trypsinogen is activated by
(a) renin
(b) enterokinase
(c) HCl
(d) pepsin

11. Sex reversal is characteristic of
(a) Drosophila
(b) hen
(c) man
(d) bees

12. The phenomenon in which one gene masks the activity of other gene is ?
(a) epistasis
(b) codominance
(c) complimentary
(d) dominant

13. Which of the following pair is uricotelic
(a) lizard and camel
(b) kite and lizard
(c) camel and eagle
(d) cat and kite

14. In arthropods which of these is important from coevolution point of view?
(a) nervous system for the first time
(b) haemolymph
(c) body covered with chitin
(d) formation of scales

15. Which of the following is the largest ear ossicle?
(a) Incus
(b) Stapes
(c) Stapedial plate
(d) Malleus

16. Kupffer cells are
(a) phagocytic
(b) nutritive
(c) secretive
(d) excretory

17. Sprain is pulling of
(a) bone
(b) cartilage
(c) ligament
(d) muscle

18. 11th July is
(a) World Population Day
(b) World food day
(c) World Environment Day
(d) World Heath Day

19. Stratum corneum is absent in
(a) fish
(b) frog
(c) reptiles
(d) birds

20. Kazhiranga sanctuary is in
(a) Assam
(b) Karnatka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala

21. Mesoderm is formed by
(a) junction of endoderm and ectoderm
(b) endoderm
(c) ectoderm
(d) archenteron

22. Filter feeding mechanism is found in
(a) cockroach
(b) earthworm
(c) leech
(d) Pila

23. Foramen of monro connects
(a) third ventricle with the fourth
(b) two lateral ventricles
(c) two cerebral hemispheres
(d) cerebellum and cerebrum

24. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) spore
(b) tetranucleated cyst
(c) egg
(d) trophozoite

25. Infective stage of Ascaris is
(a) fertilized egg
(b) 3rd stage larva
(c) unfertilized egg
(d) adult

26. One of the class of protozoa is exclusively parastic
(a) ciliata
(b) mastigophora
(c) sporozoa
(d) sarcodina

27. Mehlis’ gland are for
(a) reproduction
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) respiration

28. Influenza is caused by
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) protista

29. Rous sarcoma virus is found in
(a) man
(b) chicken
(c) rat
(d) tumour

30. Who observed for the first time the oxygen released by plants?
(a) Priestly
(b) Lavoisier
(c) Van Helmont
(d) Hales

31. Spermaphyta which has ciliated phase in its life cycle?
(a) Riccia
(b) Pteridium
(c) An angiosperm
(d) A gymnosperm

32. The reproductive isolation in insects is due
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Small reproductive organs
(c) Lock and Key mechanism
(d) none of these

33. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(a) Frankia
(b) Acetobacter
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Mycoplasma

34. In Deuterosomes the second opening forms
(a) anus
(b) mouth
(c) both above
(d) none above

35. In Kreb cycle the pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloacetic acid converts into
(a) malic acid
(b) succinic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) acetyl Co A

36. Intraspecific incompatability can be overcome by
(a) wetting of anthers
(b) mixed pollination
(c) intraovarian fertilization
(d) intraspecific competition

37. Correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is
(a) Cyt a1, a, b, c
(b) Cyt b, c, a, a3
(c) Cyt b, c, a3 , a
(d) Cyt c, b, a, a3

38. In a culture there is mixture of haploid and diploid cells it must be because of
(a) generative cells
(b) vegetative cells
(c) anther wall
(d) pollen cells

39. In Bhopal gas tragedy gas methylisocyanate is a
(a) organophosphate
(b) carbamates
(c) chlorinated hydrocarbons
(d) organochlorides

40. Pyrethrin is obtained from
(a) Chrysanthemum
(b) Azadirachta
(c) Datura
(d) Strontium

41. Tansley for the first time coined the term
(a) ecosystem
(b) ecological pyramid
(c) ecology
(d) biocoenosis

42. Who classified life mode of plants on basis of position and formation of buds?
(a) Raunbier
(b) de Castello
(c) Benthem and Hooker
(d) Engler and Prantl

43. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of milk from female?
(a) LH
(b) Prolactin
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Progeaterone

44. Which of the following do not support co-evolution?
(a) Mutualism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalism
(d) none of these

45.According to binomial nomenclature which is not possible?
(a) Tautonyms
(b) Synonyms
(c) Bionyms
(d) autonyms

46. Splicing of RNA depends on
(a) HnmRNA
(b) Exon
(c) Intron
(d) Self splicing of intron

47. Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled per minute
(a) Inhale capacity and Reserved volume
(b) Tidal volume and Reserved volume
(c) Vital capacity
(d) Exhale capacity and Reserved volume

48. Minamita and itai itai disease are due to toxicity of
(a) Mercury and tin
(b) Mercury and cadmium
(c) Mercury and head
(d) Mercury and strontium

49. Which aortic arch is absent in frog?
(a) first and second
(b) third and fourth
(c) 3rd,4th and 5th
(d) 5th and 6th

50. Which cranial nerve controls the movement of eyeball?
(a) Occulomoter
(b) Optic
(c) Opthalmic
(d) Trochlear

51. The first cloned animal was made by
(a) replacement of the nucleus of oocyte by somatic cell
(b) fusion of somatic cells
(c) fusion of somatic cells with udder cells
(d) all above

52. Cholesterol passes through lymph vessels in form of
(a) lipoproteins
(b) chylomicron
(c) cholesterol
(d) high density lipids

53. C4 plants are different from C3 plants with reference to
(a) types of end products of photosynthesis
(b) substance that accepts CO2 in carbon assimilation
(c) the number of ATP consumed in preparing sugar
(d) types of pigments involved in photosynthesis

54.Which of the following is incorrect for C4 plants?
(a) Overcome loss by photorespiration
(b) They can undergo photosynthesis in high temperature
(c) They have Krantz anatomy
(d) They are photosynthetically more efficient

55. Uniplamate unifoliate leaf is found in
(a) Pea
(b) Citrus
(c) Royal Palm
(d) Oil Palm

56. Allelopathy is due to relase of
(a) pheromones
(b) chemicals
(c) toxins
(d) poisons

57. National Botanical Research Institute is located in
(a) Lucknow
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bangalore
(d) New Delhi

58. Antigibberellin is
(a) Cycocoel
(b) Indoleacetic acid
(c) ubiquinone
(d) Plastiquinone

59. Inflorescence in which cup shaped receptacle bearing female flowers at bottom and male flowers at the opening
(a) hypanthodium
(b) cyathium
(c) verticillaster
(d) racemose

60. Intercalary meristem is located in
(a) petiole and internodes
(b) stem tip
(c) root
(d) latex

61. Conjuctive tissue is present in
(a) Tinospora
(b) Boehmaria
(c) Mirabilis
(d) Pinus

62. Opium, Bhang and tobacco are obtained from
(a) Papaver, Cannabis and Nicotiana
(b) Cannabis, Papaver and Nicotiana
(c) Nicotiana, Cannabis and Papaver
(d) Papaver, Nicotiana and Cannabis

63. Position of stomata in water lily and Podostemon is
(a) on the upper side of leaf and absent in Podostemon
(b) on the lower side of leaf and absent in Podostemon
(c) absent in both (d) on both upper and lower side and in upper part in Podostemon

64. Deficiency of vitamin A causes
(a) presbyopia
(b) Nictalopia
(c) Myopia
(d) hypermetropia

65. Refractory period is during
(a) polarization
(b) depolarization
(c) repolarization
(d) both b and c

66. Reabsorption of water in distal parts of kidney tubules controlled by
(a) vasopressin
(b) oxytocin
(c) calcitonin
(d) relaxin

67. Which of the following malaria is fatal? Plasmodium
(a) vivax
(b) ovale
(c) falciparum
(d) malariae

68. In root pressure
(a) roots act like a pumping organ like the heart
(b) each cell acts as a pump
(d) water potential plays major role
(d) none of these

69.The element which is neccessary for nitrogen fixation and act as cofactor is
(a) Mg
(b) Mo
(c) Fe
(d) Zn

70. Sperm maturation occurs in
(a) Epidydimis
(b) vasa deferntia
(c) vasa efferentia
(d) rete testis

___________________________________________________________________________

BIOLOGY SAMPLE PAPER

Dear Aspirants…..Please check all the sample papers on the site
Here is a Biology Sample Paper designed and authored by us for various examinations

Q 1. What is the the total production of ATP by breakdown of one glucose molecule during aerobic respiration?
(a) 34
(b) 38
(c) 4
(d) 4

Q.2. Which of the following bear seeds but no fruit?

(a) Pinus
(b) Banana
(c) Mango
(d) Apple

Q. 3. A chromosome should have more than one and less than five …………..
(a) chromatid
(b) telomere
(c) chromomere
(d) centromere

Q. 4. In anatropous ovule the micropyle is
(a) upward
(b) downward
(c) left side
(d) right side

Q. 5. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?
(a) Thallasaemia
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Haemophillia
(d) colourblindness

Q. 6. A man suffering from a disease marries a normal woman and they have 3 daughters diseased and five sons normal then the disease is
(a) sex linked recessive
(b) sex linked dominant
(c) autosomal dominant
(d) sex limited

Q. 7. DNA nucleotide sequence gets distorted by the process of
(a) mutation
(b) recombination
(c) mutagens
(d) translation

Q. 8. Main function of lenticels is
(a) transpiration
(b) guttation
(c) gaseous exchange
(d) translation

Q. 9. Edible part of mango is
(a) epicarp
(b) mesocarp
(c) thalamus
(d) endocarp

Q. 10. Seed dormancy is due to the presence of

(a) lower IAA
(b) ethylene
(c) ABA
(d) starch

Q. 11. The bubbles arise in dough due to
(a) yeast
(b) bacteria
(c) virus
(d) protozoans

Q. 12. Angiosperms have which of the following without exception ?
(a) Secondary growth
(b) Double fertilization
(c) Presence of vessel
(d) Autotrophic nature
Q. 13. Exons help in synthesis of
(a) proteins
(b) fatty acids
(c) fats
(d) glycogen

Q. 14. A person is passing grey white faecal matter.What is not functioning properly in the body?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas

Q. 15. Lymph contains
(a) everything like blood except RBC and few proteins
(b) serum and WBC
(c) WBC and RBC
(d) blood plasma

Q. 16. A person suffers from profuse bleeding after cut. He is deficient of Vitamin
(a) A
(b) D
(c) E
(d) K

Q. 17. There is no life on moon because of absence of
(a) water
(b) Oxygen
(c) nitrogen
(d) hydrogen
Q. 18. Which of the following is true about tracheids and vessels ?
(a) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen
(b) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen
(c) Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen
(d) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen

Q. 19. Fossil evolution originated in which of the following country?

(a) Africa
(b) Java
(c) France
(d) China
Q. 20. Green House effect is caused by

(a) green plants
(b) Infra red rays
(c) UV rays
(d) X-rays
Q. 21. What is the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation when selfing F1 generations having AABbCC

(a) 9:3:3:1
(b) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 3:1

Q. 22. Bladderwort, Sundew and Venus fly trap are respectively
(a) Dionea,Drosera and Utricularia
(b) Drosera, Dionea and Utricularia
(c) Utricularia, Drosera and Dionea
d) Utricularia, Dionea and Drosera

Q.23. The percentage of crossing over between
a b — 20%
a c — 8%
b c — 28%.
The sequence of genes is

(a) a, b,c
(b) b, a, c
(c) a, c,b
(d) b, c, a

Q. 24. Two species cannot occupy same niche. The Law is
(a) Wein Law
(b) Gause Law
(c) Allen Law
(d) Competition Exclusion Principle

Q. 25. Bacterial transformation was seen in
(a) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(b) Streptococcus
(c) E. coli
(d) Salmonella typhimurium

Q. 26. Acromegaly is caused by

(a) Oversecretion of somatostatin
(b) excessive secretion of thyrotropism
(c) hyposecretion of thyrotropism
(d) excessive corticotropism

Q. 27. The hydrolytic enzymes acting at low pH are called

(a) alpha amylases
(b) hydrolases
(c) proteases
(d) pyrimadses

Q. 28. Which of the following is homologous organ?
(a) wings of bat and locust
(b) wings of bat and bird
(c) hind legs of cockroach and hind legs of frog
(d) pectoral fins of fish and wings of bird

Q. 29. Collagen is

(a) fibrous protein
(b) fat
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) tight junction

Q. 30. Cellulose is madeup of

(a) glucose
(b) sucrose
(c) fructose
(d) ribose

Q.31. Ribosomes are formed in

(a) nucleolus
(b) Golgi bodies
(c) cytoplasm
(d) plasma membrane

Q. 32. In a tissue culture when pollen forms embryoids it is due to property of
(a) totipotency
(b) organogenesis
(c) parthenocarpy
(d) test tube fertilization

Q. 33. The pigment which absorbs red and far red light is

(a) phytochrome
(b) cytochrome
(c) carotene
(d) xanthophyll

Q. 34. In the anther the wall of the tetrads of the microspores is madeup of

(a) cellulose
(b) sporopollenin
(c) pectisaccharide
(d) callose

Q. 35. In mammals melanocytes give protection from

(a) UV rays
(b) Infrared rays
(c) X-rays
(d) visible light

Q. 36. In order to study mitosis the best part to observe under microscope is

(a) root tip
(b) leaf tip
(c) anther
(d) pollen

Q. 37. Opening and closing of stomata is caused due to

(a) change in turgor pressure of guard cells
(b) hormonal changes
(c) gaseous exchange
(d) transpiration

Q. 38.The energy from light reactions is absorbed and transported to dark reactions by
(a) ATP
(b) ADP
(c) RuBP
(d) chlorophyll

Q. 39. Which of the following is sexlinked disease?

(a) Colour blindness
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Syphyllis
(d) AIDS

Q. 40. Bamboo trees in remote forests constitute

(a) First trophic level
(b) Second trophic level
(c) Third trophic level
(d) Fourth trophic level

Q. 41.Menstrual cycle is affected by
(a) progasterone only
(b) LH only
(c) LH + FSH + Oestrogen
(d) Oestrogen only

Q. 42. Steroid which is used in microbiological transformation
(a) progasterone
(b) cortisol
(c) Cholesterol
(d) testosterone

Q. 43. Which of the following will not be found in polluted water?

(a) Blue green algae
(b) Larvae of stone fly
(c) Water Hyacinth
(d) Sewage fungi

Q. 44. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?

(a) glucinol
(b) galactose
(c)alpha galactosidase
(d) none of these

Q. 45. Adrenaline directly affects

(a) Islet of Langerhans
(b) Sinoatrial node
(c) Oxyntic cells of stomach
(d) dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord

Q. 46. The stimulation for heart contraction initiates in
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) medulla
(d) Purkinjee fibres

Q. 47. The most important character of speciation is

(a) Reproductive Isolation
(b) Ethological Isolation
(c) Behavioural Isolation
(d) Geographical Isolation

Q. 48. Gobar gas is formed by action of

(a) methanogens
(b) nitrates
(c) parasites
(d) E. coli

Q. 49. Four radial vascular bundles are formed in

(a) monocot root
(b) dicot root
(c) monocot stem
(d) dicot stem

Q. 50. Which of the following has nerve cells but no brain ?
(a) Hydra
(b) Sponge
(c) Protozoan
(d) Cockroach

Q. 51. Thymine is 20% then guanine is ?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%

Q. 52. During cleavage
(a) size of early embryo increases
(b) size of early embryo decreases
(c) size of resulting cells increases
(d) size of resulting cells decreases

Q. 53. Lipids are not soluble in water because

(a) lipids are neutral
(b) lipids are hydrophillic
(c) lipids are hydrophobic
(d) Zwitter ion complex of lipids

Q. 54. Vessels are found in
(a) all angiosperms
(b) Most angiosperms, few gymnosperms and few pteridophytes
(c) all angiosperms and few gymnosperms
(d) most angiosperms and few gymnosperms

Q. 55. The interdependent evolution of flowering plants and pollinating insects together is known as

(a) mutualism
(b) coevolution
(c) commensalism
(d) cooperation

Q. 56. In an exponential bacterial culture the number of cells/ml is plotted on half log graph.The graph is
(a) sigmoid
(b) hyperbola
(c) ascending straight line
(d) descending straight line

Q. 57. Spindle fibres are mostly composed of
(a) actin
(b) myosin
(c) actomyosin
(d) myoglobin

Q. 58. During cloning, the nucleus of the cell is replaced by the vegetative somatic nucleus of the donar cell. Then
(a) extra chromosomal genes are of the recipient cell
(b) extra chromosomal genes are of the donar cell
(c) no genes are involved
(d) chromosomal genes are of the donar cell only

Q. 59. The terminal and axillary buds arise from

(a) apical meristem
(b) intercalary meristem
(c) lateral meristem
(d) parenchyma

Q. 60. Which of the following match is correct?
(a) Sickle cell anaemia – X chromosome
(b) Down Syndrome – 21 chromosome
(c) Parkinsonism – XY chromosome
(d) Hemophilia- Y chromosome

Q. 61. Notochord is present in

(a) all chordates
(b) few chordates
(c) all vertebrtaes
(d) few vertebrates

Q.62. One of the following attack seed as well as inflorescence equally
(a) loose smut of wheat
(b) covered smut of barley
(c) corn smut
(d) late blight of potato

Q. 63. If both the ovaries of rat are removed which of the following hormones will be deficient?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Oestrogen
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Gonadotrophic hormone

Q. 64. Which of the following have geocarpic fruit?

(a) Peanut
(b) Onion
(c) Tomato
(d)Ginger

Q. 65. Protozoan protist having nuclear dimorphism

(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Paramecium caudatum
(c) Amoeba proteus
(d) Trypanosoma gambiense

Q. 66. Node of Ranvier is a place where
(a) medulla sheath is discontinuous
(b) medullary sheath and neurilemma is discontinuous
(c) axolemma is absent
(d) axolemma is discontinuous

Q. 67. One of the following guide the pollen tube in releasing gametes in embrysac

(a) synergid
(b) secondary nucleus
(c) egg cell
(d) antipodal cell

Q. 68. Reptiles were dominant in
(a) mesozoic era
(b) coenozoic era
(c) palaeozoic era
(d) archeozoic era

Q. 69. New world crop shifted to India by North and South America are

(a) Cashewnut, mango,tea
(b) Cashewnut, rubber, potato
(c) Mango,tea,coffee
(d) Coffee,tea and Cashewnut

Q. 70. Scientists have problems in introducing new genetically improved food centres around due to

(a) adverse effect on economy of developing countries
(b) adverse effect on marketting and production of seed crops
(c) New allergins and diseases in human due to introduction of new foreign proteins
(d) they are impalatable to humans

Q. 71. In fluid mosaic model the plasma membrane

(a) has central bilayer of proteins
(b) has bilayer phospholipid layer
(c) have hydrophobic nonpolar tails
(d) have hydrophillic polar heads

Q. 72.For detection of cancer isotope used is
(a) Iodine 31
(b) Caesium 60
(c) Strontium
(d) Uranium

Q. 73. In exponential phase, the sequence of events in bacterial multiplication is

(a) stationary, lag, log, decline
(b) stationary,l og, lag, decline
(c) lag, log, decline, stationary
(d) decline, log, lag, stationary

Q. 74. Which of the following will not result in change in gene ratio?
(a) Random mating
(b) Sexual selectiveness
(c) Mutation
(d) none of these

Q. 75. Main reason of animal extinction is
(a) Cutting of trees
(b) Habitat destruction
(c) Predation
(d) pollution

Q. 76. Which of the following disease is produced by fungus growing in stored rice grains?

(a) Aspergillosis
(b) Alternaria
(c) Fusarium moniliforme
(d) Penicillium

Q. 77. Mimicry is for
(a) offence and defence
(b) conceilment
(c) offence
(d) defence

Q. 78. Five Kingdom classification of Whittaker is mainly based on

(a) nucleus
(b) cell structure
(c) nutrition
(d) complexity of organs

Q. 79. One of them contributes maximum to air pollution

(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Britain

Q. 80.The end of the long bones are covered by

(a) hyaline cartilage
(b) elastic cartilage
(c) calcified cartilage
(d) fibrous cartilage

Q. 81. In ‘lac operon’ repressor protein attaches with
(a) operator
(b) promoter
(c) cistron
(d) beta galactosidase

Q. 82. ‘lac operon’ was discovered by
(a) C.Yanofsky
(b) Hershy and Chase
(c) Sumner
(d) Jacob and Monad

1. Gloriosa superba has parallel venation with leaf apex modified as tendril belongs towhich of these families?
(a) Cucurbitaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Labiatae
(d) Liliaceae

2. In Casuarina, fertilization occurs by
(a) chalazogamy
(b) mesogamy
(c) porogamy
(d) apogamy

3. Meiosis can be best studied in
(a) young anther
(b) young leaf
(c) young stem
(d) root tip

4. Late blight of potato is caused by
(a) Phytophthora infestans
(b) Alternaria
(c) Puccinia
(d) Ustilago

5. Which of the following is mainly responsible for yellow diseases in plants?
(a) Phytophthora infestans
(b) Puccinia
(c) Colletotricum
(d) Mycoplasma

6. Sporic meiosis can be seen?
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) plantae
(d) animalia

7. Syconus is fruit of
(a) hypanthodium
(b) Coenanthium
(c) Verticillaster
(d) Cyathium
8. Pome,pepo and hesperidium are

(a) apple,Cucumis and lime
(b) lemon, apple, Cucumis
(c) apple, lemon, Cucurbit
(d) lemon, Cucumis, apple

9. Heterothallism was discovered by
(a) Blakeslee
(b) Darwin
(c) Roper and Pontecorvo
(d) de Barry

10. Trypsinogen is activated by
(a) renin
(b) enterokinase
(c) HCl
(d) pepsin

11. Sex reversal is characteristic of
(a) Drosophila
(b) hen
(c) man
(d) bees

12. The phenomenon in which one gene masks the activity of other gene is

(a) epistasis
(b) codominance
(c) complimentary
(d) dominant

13. Which of the following pair is uricotelic
(a) lizard and camel
(b) kite and lizard
(c) camel and eagle
(d) cat and kite

14. Devine and Collego are famous
(a) bioinsecticides
(b) natural insecticides
(c) biofungicides
(d) bioherbicides

15. Which of the following is the largest ear ossicle?

(a) Incus
(b) Stapes
(c) Stapedial plate
(d) Malleus

16. Kupffer cells are
(a) phagocytic
(b) nutritive
(c) secretive
(d) excretory

17. Sprain is pulling of
(a) bone
(b) cartilage
(c) ligament
(d) muscle

18. 11th July is
(a) World Population Day
(b) World food day
(c) World Environment Day
(d) World Heath Day

19. Surgical removal of vas deferens is
(a) tubectomy
(b) vasectomy
(c) vasectolysis
(d) Copper T

20. Dachigam sanctuary is famous for
(a) black buck
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Hangul
(d) Flamingo

21. Biodiesel and energy crop is ———-respectively.
(a) Beet root, sugarane and Pongamia
(b) Maize, Sugarcane and Jatropha ,Pongamia
(c) Jatropha , Pongamia and Cactus
(d) Jatropha , Pongamia ,Cactus and maize, sugarcane

22. Filter feeding mechanism is found in
(a) cockroach
(b) earthworm
(c) leech
(d) Pila

23. Foramen of monro connects
(a) third ventricle with the fourth
(b) two lateral ventricles
(c) two cerebral hemispheres
(d) cerebellum and cerebrum

24. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) spore
(b) tetranucleated cyst
(c) egg
(d) trophozoite

25. Infective stage of Ascaris is
(a) fertilized egg
(b) 3rd stage larva
(c) unfertilized egg
(d) adult

26. One of the class of protozoa is exclusively parastic
(a) ciliata
(b) mastigophora
(c) sporozoa
(d) sarcodina

27. Mehlis’ gland are for
(a) reproduction
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) respiration

28. Influenza is caused by
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) protista

29. Rous sarcoma virus was discovered in
(a) man
(b) chicken
(c) rat
(d) tumour

30. Who observed for the first time the oxygen released by plants?
(a) Priestly
(b) Lavoisier
(c) Van Helmont
(d) Hales

Many more question to follow daily…

_________________________________________________________________________

PMT (Delhi) STATE DELHI UNIVERSITY, DELHI
Total Seats: 450
MBBS: 410
BDS: 40
Qualification: 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age Min. 17 to Max. None
Examination Type : OBJECTIVE P+C+B (200)
Time given : 3 Hrs

___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

CPMT (UP) STATE VEER BAHADUR SINGH PURVANCHAL UNIVERSITY, JAUNPUR
Total Seats : 816
MBBS: 765
BDS: 51
Qualification :12TH (PASS IN PCBE)
Age required : Min. 17 to Max. None
Examination Type : OBJECTIVE : PAPER-1 (P+C), PAPER-2 (BOT.+ ZOO.)
Time given :2.00 Hrs. each

    1.       Which of the following statement complements this statement.

             “Metabolism is the process by which

              A   a cell duplicates itself.”

              B   fluid moves through a membrane.” 

              C     a cell defends the organism from outside attackers.”

              D     an organism produces and uses energy.”

  2.    What is organization of life ?

                 Organization of life may be explained as the manner in which smaller

                 components of any structure,  system or organism are arranged in a

                 hierarchy to coordinate with each other towards a goal.

                 The various levels of biological organization are as follows:

                 Atoms——-> Molecules and Compounds ——-> Living Cells—->

                 Tissues——–> Organs ———> System ——–>  Individual——> 

                 Population——-> Community——> Ecosystem——> Biosphere

       3.      Briefly explain the difference between mitosis and meiosis.

       Ans.             NUCLEUS     

                             Mitosis                                                 Meiosis 

                             IN PROPHASE              

                             Mitosis                                                 Meiosis    

                              IN  METAPHASE          

                              Mitosis                                                Meiosis

                              IN  ANAPHASE              

                              Mitosis                                                 Meiosis

                               DAUGHTER  CELLS           

                              Mitosis                                                 Meiosis

                              PLOID CONDITIONS              

                              Mitosis                                                 Meiosis

   4.     Identify the option from the following list that correctly completes the   

            statement: “Mitosis is the process by which

              A    fluid moves through a membrane.”

              B    a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells.”

              C     a cell divides itself into four completely new cells.”

              D    the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells.”   

    5.    Identify the option from the following list that states the stages of mitosis in

              the correct order:

              A    Anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.

              B     Prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, prophase II,

                        metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II.

              C     Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase.

              D     Anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, cytokinesis.

  6.     Identify the option from the following list that correctly completes the statement:

           “Meiosis is the process by which

             A     the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells.”     

             B     fluid moves through a membrane.”

             C     a cell divides itself into two completely new, but identical cells.”

             D     a cell divides itself into four completely new cells.”

   7.      Which of the following is not a practical way to isolate human gene that

              mutates to cause a disease?

             A      Sequence DNAs from people with and without the genetic mutation

                        to determine the differences

             B      Use an antibody to isolate the mRNA for the protein involved, make a

                        cDNA copy, and then use this cDNA to probe a genomic library

              C      Compare the DNA of a person with the disease (which has a deleted

                         chromosome) with the DNA from a person without the disease to see

                         if the latter has extra sequences, which contain the target gene

              D      Use DNA markers that are closely linked to the mutant gene and then

                         isolate the gene by molecular methods           

              E      Isolate DNAs from people with and without the disease and insert each

                         into cloning vectors to see what proteins are made

    8.   Mutational “hot spots” in human DNA …….

               A     always occur in genes that are transcribed

               B     involve long stretches on nucleotides.         

               C      occur where there are triplet repeats, such as CTG        

               D       are very rare in genes that code for proteins               

               E      are common at cytosines that have been modified to methylcytosine

  9.   Newborn genetic screening for PKU …

              A       is very expensive         

              B       must be done during the first day of an infant’s life

              C       detects phenyiketones in urine

              D       has not led to the prevention of mental retardation resulting

                           from this disorder        

              E     uses bacterial growth to detect excess phenylalanine blood  

 10.   Genetic diagnosis by DNA testing…

               A         cannot be done with PCR       

               B       involves hybridization to rRNA             

               C        can be done only on eggs or sperm

               D        detects only mutant and not normal alleles           

               E        utilizes restriction enzymes and polymorphic site

    11.  Most human cancers …

                A    are caused by viruses

                B     are in blood cells or their precursors

                C     spread through solid tissues rather than by the blood

                          or lymphatic system

                D     involve mutations of somatic cells

                E     are inherited

     12.      Multifactorial disease :

                A      are less common that single-gene diseases

                B      involve the interactions of several mRNAs.

                C       involve the interaction of many genes with the environment             

                D       are exemplified by sickle-cell anemia.              

                E       affect less than 1 percent of humans

    13.   In fragile-X syndrome,

                A      females are affected more severely than males

                A      a short sequence of DNA is repeated many times to create the

                           fragile site

                A      both the X and Y chromosomes tend to break when prepared

                           for microscopy

                A      all people who carry the gene that causes the syndrome are

                            mentally retarded

                A      the basic pattern of inheritance is autosomal dominant

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

The International Biology Olympiad (IBO)

A science olympiad for high school students.

IBO promotes a career in science of Biology for talented students and provides an opportunity to compare educational methods and exchange experiences. This improves biology education on a national level. Several organisation as schools and educational institutions, like ministries of education, industry, teachers’ associations cooperate and promote this activity.

Some questions for Biology Olympians

1. Names of some proteins are given below.

A. collagen B. hemoglobin C. albumin D. actin E. casein

Which of these is a ____________protein?

 1.   transport

2.    storage

3.    fibrous

4.    contractile

2.   Five structures found in living cells are given here.

       A.  Ribosomes     B. Chloroplasts       C. Mitochondria   

       D. Lysosomes       E. Peroxisomes

Which of these

1.    contain DNA within ?

2.    can be found in bacteria?

3.    contain a single membrane?.

4.    contain catalase enzyme?

3.    The diagram given below indicates the change of the rate of an enzyme

      reaction with a change of one variable factor. 

1.     What is the variable factor that suits the X-axis of the graph ?

2.     What happens to the enzyme in the phase B of the graph?

3.     Is the change that happens to enzyme in phase B is reversible?

4.     Name a starch hydrolyzing enzyme that behaves this way

4. Some geological periods of earth are given below.

     (A)   Cambrian    (B) Permian     (C)  Devonian  

    (D)  Jurassic           (E)  Quaternary

Which of these periods

1.     can be considered as the age of fishes?

2.     marked by the appearance of birds?

3.     marked by the extinction of trilobites?

4.     marked by the appearance of flowering plants?

5. This question is based on the following.

A. Ulva      B. Pteridophyta       C. Reptilia      D. Dicotyledoneae     E. Lepidoptera

Which of the above represents

1.    a phylum/division?

2.    a class?

3.    a genus name?

4.    an order?

6. The diagram given below indicates an experiment on respiration of germinating seeds. The two respirometers A and B have equal samples of seeds. Flask A has a tube containing KOH in addition to seeds. Initial levels of liquid columns in the tubes are indicated as 0. After one hour the liquid column in A was h1 and that of B was h2.

1.    Calculate the Respiratory Quotient. RQ= h1-h2/ h1

2.    If the flask contained germinating Sesame seeds what will be the approximate value of Respiratory Quotient?

3.    If the two flasks contained germinating Mung seeds will h2 be 0, -ve or +ve?

4.    Why is this experiment done with germinating seeds and not with dry seeds?

7. The diagram given below indicates some experiments done by Went with coleoptiles oat seedlings. A coleoptile grown in darkness was decapitated and the tip was kept on a block of agar for a few minutes. A indicates the agar block placed sideways on another decapitated coleoptile. B indicates the control for this experiment.

1.  If the agar block in B was placed in the center of coleoptile (not sideways) what would have been the result?

2.  What is the substance that was discovered by these experiments?

3.  Why is this experiment carried out in dark?

4.    How is the agar block shown in B different from that shown in A

  8. The diagram given below shows a part of a transverse section of a stem as seen under microscope.

1.    What is more likely to be the plant from which the section has been taken ; Sunflower or a Grass?

2.    What is the type of tissue labeled as A?

3.    What are the structures labeled as B?

9. Answer the following questions based on human heart.

 1.   The stimulus for contraction of heart is generated by ______

2.    The finer branches of the cardiac fibers that transmit impulses in the heart are known as ________

3.    Time taken to complete atrial and ventricular diastole for an adult human at rest is________

4.    Volume of blood pumped per minute into the systemic circuit is known as __________

10. This question is based on the vitamins listed below

A – Vitamin A (retinol)   

B – Vitamin B3 (niacin)                    

C – Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)     

D – Folic acid

E – Vitamin          

K. (phylloquinone)

1.    Deficiency of which leads to impaired immunity?

2.    Which is a component of coenzyme NAD?

3.    Deficiency of which leads to night blindness?

4.    Deficiency of which leads to anemia?

———————————————————————————————————————————-

_____________________________________________________________
PMT BIOLOGY : AFMC TEST PAPER 2009 held on 3rd May

First 10 questions answered (courtesy….Simarjot Kaur of HKS Institute of Science, Ludhiana)

Answer Keys to AFMC PMT Question Paper 2009

1. In which of the following fruits the edible part is the aril ?

A Apple

B Pomegranate

C Orange

D Litchi

2: Coconut milk is widely used in tissue culture because it contains…..
A Auxins

B Cytokinin

C Giberellin

D ethylene

3. Which one is not essential for plants ?

A Fe

B Zn

C . Iodine

D Potassium

4. What is the full form of BOD ?

A Biochemical Oxygen Demand

B Biological Oxygen Demand

C Biotic Oxygen Demand

D None of the above

5. When is World Aids day celebrated ?
A Dec 1

B Jan 2

C Feb 12

D Jan 30

6. Minamata disease is caused by ?

A Cadmium toxicity

B Mercury toxicity

C Lack of iron

D S Lead toxicity

7. BCG vaccine is used against which disease?

A Typhoid

B Tuberculosis

C Cholera

D Explanation .

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (or BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis. It is prepared from attenuated (weakened) live Mycobacterium bovis a bovine tuberculosis bacillus. The strain is not virulent in humans.

8. Lack of what causes Pellagra ?

A Retinol

B Folic acid

C Niacin

D Riboflavin

9. Which of the following is used in genetic engineering as cutters?

A Ligase

B Gyrase

C Restriction endonuclease

D RNA polymerase 1.

10. Aedes aegypti is the vector of which disease?

A Dengue

B Plague

C Malaria

D Kala azar

Aedes aegypti (=Stegomyia aegypti, =Aedes (Stegomyia) aegypti)….. information contributed by Sooraj
_____________________________________________________________

Better your Biology with Bisbio.in

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Here are few Biology Questions with their answers of CMC PMT Ludhiana held on 24th May 2009 . The questions are from the mind of Shallu Goyal of BBIPL, Chandigarh. We thank her for the contribution.

BIOLOGY PAPER

1. Immunity that comes after a disease has been cured

A natural active immunity

B natural passive immunity

C artificial active immunity

D artificial passive immunity

2. Subcellular organelles can be separated by

A electrophoresis

B centrifugation

C paper chromatography

D electron microscopy

3. Which sugar is present inside the nucleolus ?

A Glucose

B Ribose

C Erythrose

D Sedoheptulose

4. Glycolysis takes place in

A cytoplasm

B mitochondria matrix

C nucleus

D inner membrane of mitochondria

5. Desmosomes are

A intercellular junctions

B pores in plant cell wall

C carbohydrates in sieve tubes

D located in anther wall

6. Tetradynamous condition is shown by

A Brassicaceae

B Solanaceae

C Asteraceae

D Malvaceae

7. Outermost covering of brain is the

A piamater

B duramater

C choroid

D arachnoid

8. Corolla having 5 petals and vexillary aestivation i.s called

A bilabiate

B papilionaceous

C ligulate

D cruciform

9. Thigmotropism is indicated by

A leaves

B leaflets

C stem

D tendrils

10. Vivipary is best shown by

A pea

B maize

C bean

D none of the above

Many more questions are to follow………

______________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________
AIPMT NATIONAL (GOVT.) CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION, NEW DELHI
Total Seats : 1973
MBBS: 1782
BDS: 191
Qualification :12th (50% IN PCB & PASS IN ENG.)
Age : Min. 17 to Max. 25
Examination Type: Preliminary–OBJECTIVE P(50)+C(50)+B(100)
Time given 3.00 HRS.
Mains : NON OBJECTIVE P(10)+C(10) & B(20)
Time given 2 HRS. + 2 HRS.

_________________________________________________________________

CBSE PMT Biology Paper 2009- Answered & Discussed / Dr. S Biswas & Dr. A Biswas by Dr Subroto Biswas

Get your own Virtual Classroom

_________________________________________________________________

COMED KARNATAKA NATIONAL (PRIVATE) COMEDK, BANGALORE

MBBS: Participating Institutes
BDS: None
Total Seats : Variable
Qualification : 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age : Min. 17 to Max. none
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(60) + C(60) + B(60)
Time given 3.00 hrs
——————————————————————————————————————————————————————————–

Biology Paper of COMEDK UGET-held in MAY 2009
The questions came from the mind of Simarjot Kaur of HKS Institute of Sciences, Ludhiana. We thank her for the contribution.

1. For investigating the functions of brain, the most appropriate imaging technique is:
(A) NMR-imaging
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Sonography
(D) PET

2. Mitosis and cytoplasmic division function in:
(A) asexual reproduction of single cell eukaryotes
(B) growth, tissue repair, often asexual reproduction
(C) gamete formation in reproduction
(D) both (A) and (B)

3. Alleles are _____________
(A) different molecular forms of a gene
(B) different phenotypes
(C) self fertilizing, true breeding homozygotes
(D) different molecular forms of different genes

4. Which one of the following contain xylem vessels?
(A) Bryophyta
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Gymnosperm
(D) Angiosperm

5. Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
(A) Outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.
(B) Enzymes of ETC are embedded in the outer membrane.
(C) Inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings.
(D) Outer membrane resembles a sieve.

6. Synthesis of RNA and proteins take place in :
(A) M – Phase
B) S – Phase
(C) G
1 – Phase
(D) G1 and G2 Phases

7. In eukaryotic cells the histone proteins are synthesized during.
(A) entire prophase
(B) telophase
(C) S – phase
(D) G2 – phase

8. According to Whitaker’s five kingdom classification the unicellular, non-nucleated organisms are placed in:
(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia

9. Which type of relation does a fungus has with alga in lichens?
(A) Epiphytic
(B) Parasitic
(C) Symbiotic
(D) Saprophytic

10. Which of the following plants do not produce seeds?
(A) Ficus and Funaria
(B) Fern and Funaria
(C) Chlamydomonas and Ficus
(D) Punica and Pinus

11. Phylum annelida resembles many mollusca in embryonic features as both have:
(A) Spiral cleavage and mesoderm formation.
(B) Meroblastic cleavage and ectoderm formation.
(C) Special types of mouth parts.
(D) Identical conspicuous segmentation in body muscles and nervous system.

12. Canal system in Porifera is not associated with :
(A) Respiration
(B) Nutrition
(C) Sexual reproduction
(D) None of these.

Many more are to follow……………

____________________________________________________________________

ANSWERS TO COMED KARNATAKA PMT 2009 held in MAY

1. A
2. D
3, A.
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D

____________________________________________________________________
ONLINE TEST BATCH FOR STATE PMT / Physics, Chemistry and Biology Classes from 19th May 2009

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
CMC Ludhiana Entrance Test 2009 / Biology Sample Paper
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Please solve the paper and get the answers at the end

1. Ichthyology is the study of
(a) snakes
(b) lizards
(c) aves
(d) none above

Explanation.
Study of snakes…ophidiology
Study of birds….ornithology
Study of lizards…saurology
Then what is the Study of fishes called ?

2. Bamboo is
(a) a fern
(b) monocarpic
(c) polycarpic
(d) gymnosperm

3. Intrinsic flow of information means
(a) transcription
(b) translation
(c) both above
(d) none above

4. First cloned sheep dolly was made by
(a) Wilmut and Campbell
(b) Stanley and Garjdusek
(c) Miller and Steward
(d) Milstein and Kohler

5. Power of regeneration is poor in
(a) brain cells
(b) chondrocytes
(c) bone cells
(d) liver cells

6. Marijuana is extracted from 6
(a) Cannabis
(b) Papaver
(c) Ergot
(d) Claviceps

7. Vegetative reproduction in bulbils occur in 7
(a) Agave
(b) Gingiber
(c) Vallisneria
(d) Curcuma

8. Oxynctic cells secrete
(a) pepsin
(b) trypsin
(c) HCl
(d) hormones

9.Ephedrine is extracted from
(a) seeds
(b) leaves
(c) roots
(d) stem

10. Which of the following is not a component of xylem?
(a) Vessel
(b) Tracheids
(c) Medullary rays
(d) Vascular rays

11. Meiosis occurs in
(a) megaspore
(b) embryosac
(c) nucellus
(d) megaspore mother cell

12. A person suffering from Klinefelter syndrome will have how many Barr bodies
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) none of these

13. One of these become inactive during old age?
(a) Thymus
(b) Pineal
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pituitary

14. Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacterial cell is called
(a) lomasome
(b) metasome
(c) mesosome
(d) desmosome

15. During allergic reaction which of the following is secreted ?
(a) allergens
(b) histamines
(c) immunoglobins
(d) pyrogens

16. Tunica albuginea is the covering of
(a) liver
(b) spleen
(c) testis
(d) lungs

17. Trichocysts are characteristic of
(a) Paramecium
(b) Hydra
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Amoeba

18. Tusks of elephant are
(a) upper incisors
(b) upper canines
(c) lower canines
(d) lower incisors

19. First National Park is
(a) Periyar
(b) Kazirangha
(c) Corbett National Park
(d) Palamau

20. One of these is single membrane organelle
(a) ribosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) lysosome
(d) ER

ONLINE TEST BATCH FOR STATE PMT / Physics, Chemistry and Biology Classes from 19th May 2009

21. Genetic material of coliphage is
(a) only RNA
(b) only DNA
(c) both RNA and DNA
(d) proteins

22.Krebs cycle is a part of _________ respiration
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) fermentation
(d) fecultative

23. Photosystem II occurs in
(a) outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) stroma
(c) grana
(d) inner membrane of mitochondria

24.Cell wall of fungus is made of
(a) cellulose
(b) chitin
(c) fungal chitin
(d) muramic acid

25. Monosaccharides found in nucleolus is
(a) hexose
(b) pentose
(c) tetrose
(d) erythrose

26.A male child suffering from Down syndrome will have genetic constitution
(a) XX
(b) XXY
(c) XY
(d) XO

27.Cell organelles can be separated by
(a) chromatography
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) differential centrifugation
(d) electrophoresis

28. Cells surrounding guard cells are
(a) Accessory
(b) subsidiary
(c) motor
(d) bulliform

29. Totipotency will occur in
(a) microspore
(b) megaspore
(c) meristem
(d) sclereids

30. Nucleosome is
(a) histone proteins
(b) DNA wrapped around histones
(c) RNA wrapped around histones
(d) DNA wrapped around acidic proteins

31.One of these is associated with cell division
(a) microsome
(b) peroxisome
(c) microtubule
(d) ER

32. How many mother cells will form 1000 microspores?
(a) 1000
(b) 250
(c) 500
(d) 2000

33. VAM is
(a) saprophytic fungi
(b) symbiotic fungi
(c) saprophytic bacteria
(d) symbiotic bacteria

34. Which of the following muscles are immune to fatigue?
(a) striped
(b) unstriped
(c) cardiac
(d) voluntary

35. T-lymphocytes first mature in
(a) Thymus
(b) pancreas
(c) liver
(d) spleen

36. Prawn carry
(a) oxygenated blood
(b) mixed blood
(c) deoxygenated blood
(d) no blood

37. Blood in urine is
(a) glycosuria
(b) haematuria
(c) oligouria
(d) anuria

38. Distance between two DNA strands is
(a) 20Ao
(b) 34 Ao
(c) 3.4 Ao
(d) 2 Ao

39. DNA replication occurs in ________ phase
(a) S
(b) G1
(c) G2
(d) inter

40.Pigment found in brown algae is
(a) haematochrome
(b) fucoxanthin
(c) phycocyanin
(d) phycoerythrin

…………………………………………………………………………………..

Answers Keys
1d
2b
3c
4a
5a
6a
7a
8c
9d
10c
11d
12c
13a
14c
15b
16c
17a
18a
19c
20c
21b
22a
23c
24c
25b
26c
27c
28b
29c
30b
31c
32b
33b
34c
35a
36a
37b
38a
39a
40b
…………………………………………………………………………………..

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CET conducted by Punjab University for admission to MBBS/BPharm courses, Chandigarh

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CET Biology Sample Test Paper
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1. Molecular biology is the study of
(a) structure, function and reproduction of cell
(b) Physio-chemical studies of biomolecules
(c) studying tissues under microscope
(d) metabolic activity of life

2. Evolution can be studied now in the action of one of the following
(a) Sphenodon
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Peppered moth
(d) Paramecium

3. Which of these is not a connecting link?
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Spiny ant eater
(c) Tortoise
(d) Lung fish

4. Stored food of Euglena is
(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) paramylum
(d) starch

5. While solving a problem a scientific method is employed. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) The observations are made directly or indirectly
(b) A possible hypothesis is formulated to explain the phenomenon
(c) Hypothesis is subjected to experiment
(d) No control is kept with an experiment

6. Bhopal gas tragedy was due to
(a) Methane
(b) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Malathion
(d) methylcarbide

7. Ergot which is used to extract LSD is
(a) Ustilago
(b) Puccinia
(c) Neurospora
(d) Claviceps

8. Cytokinin is mainly synthesized in
(a) root
(b) shoot tip
(c) leaf
(d) shoot bud

9. According to Oparin’s concept the regulator gene
(a) inactivates the enzyme
(b) inactivates the substrate
(c) inhibits the movement of mRNA to the cytoplasm
(d) inhibits the transcription of mRNA

10. One of the following is the bacterial disease
(a) malaria
(b) tetanus
(c) polio
(d) Filaria

11. One of the following is incorrect
(a) Most homeostatic mechanisms in an organism work on feedback
(b) A living being in a steady state has a self regulatory mechanism-homeostasis
(c) The cell is given instruction when it has to reproduce by a protein molecule of heredity
(d) For survival of a species it is necessary for the organism to replace those organisms

12. An antibiotic-Penicillin is produced from
(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) algae

13. Which of the following is involved in defence mechanism of the body?
(a) lymphocytes
(b) Neutrophills
(c) Macrophages
(d) all of these

14. Gametic meiosis is performed in
(a) a protist which is haploid
(b) a protist which is diploid
(c) all eukaryotes
(d) none of these

15. If a short day plant is exposed to light for short duration
(a) It will flower normally
(b) It fails to flower
(c) It will flower more faster
(d) It will change to long day plant

16. Two species cannot occupy the same niche.This competition exclusion principle is
(a) Allen’s Law
(b) Gause Law
(c) Allen’s Law
(d) Gloger’s Law

17. Rh negative means
(a) heterozygous (Rr)
(b) homozygous recessive (rr)
(c) homozygous dominant (RR)
(d) none of these

18. Acetabulum is present in _______ joint
(a) hip
(b) knee
(c) elbow
(d) shoulder

19.One of the following is not an attribution to an enzyme
(a) It is used up in reaction
(b) It accelerates the rate of reaction
(c) They are specific in nature
(d) They are proteinaceous in nature

20. Pollination by birds is
(a) Ornithophily
(b) Chiropteriphily
(c) Malacophily
(d) Hydrophily

21. The succession which starts in sand is
(a) lithosere
(b) halosere
(c) hydrosere
(d) psammosere

22.Cervical vertebrae of one of following are seven in number
(a) rabbit
(b) elephant
(c) giraffe
(d) all above

23. In emergency blood pressure is controlled by
(a) adrenal
(b) prolactin
(c) adrenocorticotropic
(d) thyroid

24.The curvature movements of Mimosa (Touch me not) are due to
(a) thermonasty
(b) chemonasty
(c) thigmonasty
(d) hydronasty

25.’Venus fly trap’ is the common name of
(a) Drosera
(b) Dionea
(c) Urticularia
(d) Nepenthes

26. The most accepted theory for stomatal opening and closing is
(a) Transpiration
(b) Guard cell photosynthesis
(c) K+ efflux and influx
(d) Starch glucose interconversion

27. Prothallus of moss is
(a) haplod
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid

28. Moss protonema resembles an algal filament but can be distinguished from later in
(a) lacking chloroplast
(b) oblique septa
(c) cellulosic cell wall
(d) coenocytic

29. Synapse is proximity of
(a) two neurons
(b) two veins
(c) two arteries
(d) venules

30. The stage when nuclei lie adjacent to each other
(a) dikaryophase
(b) karyogamy
(c) synapse
(d) plasmogamy

31. Which of the following is false?
(a) Tapeworm excrete through flame cells
(b) Prawns have excretory organs as nephridia
(c) Nephron starts from Bowman’s capsule containing the glomerulus
(d) Excretion is performed by the nephrons by filtration,absorption and secretion

32. The ephemeral structure which anchors the embryo and pushes it into the nutritional zone of the embryosac
(a) haustorium
(b) suspensor
(c) coleorhiza
(d) radicle

33. One of the following is the sex linked disease
(a) haemophilia
(b) cancer
(c) Diabetes
(d) rheumatoid arthritis

34. A beet root slice is first washed and then placed in cold water and it doesnot lose its anthocyanin. This shows that plasma membrane is
(a) impermeable to anthocyanin
(b) permeable to anthocyanin
(c) differentially permeable to anthocyanin
(d) It is dead

35. Phycoerythrin and phycocyanin are found in
(a) green algae
(b) brown algae
(c) red algae
(d) all above

36. Haemocoel is found in
(a) arthropoda
(b) coelentrata
(c) porifera
(d) annelida

37. Carapace is associated with
(a) snake
(b) turtle
(c) flying lizard
(d) crocodile

38. Tissue level of organization is found in
(a) porifera
(b) coelentrata
(c) annelida
(d) vertebrata

39. Placenta is characteristic feature of
(a) mammals
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) fish

40. Water vascular system is found in
(a) Porifera
(b) Mollusca
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Coelentrata

41. The most threatning factor for the survival of plant biodiversity is
(a) destruction of natural habitat
(b) biosphere reserves
(c) vulnerable ecosystems like mangrooves and wet lands
(d) inaccesibility of habitats

42. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Albinism is genetic and etiolation is physiological
(b) Etiolation and Albinism are synonyms
(c) Etiolation is irreversible
(d) Etiolation is genetic and albinism is physiological

43. Severe competition for food,shelter and space is maximum in
(a) Closely related species occupying the same niche
(b) Closely related species occupying the different niche
(c) Distantly related species occupying the same habitat
(d) Distantly related species occupying the different habitat

44. A biotic ecosystem consists of
(a) consumers, decomposers and producers
(b) only consumers
(c) consumers and producers
(d) producers and primary consumers

45. A new species can be developed by
(a) mutation and isolation
(b) isolation and competition
(c) mutation and competition
(d) variation and competition

46. For preparation of a gene map the recombination frequency is additive only over short distances but not over long distances due to
(a) multiple crossovers
(b) lethal mutation
(c) epistasis
(d) synaptinemal complex

47. An organ which is an accessory excretory organ is
(a) heart
(b) stomach
(c) liver
(d) intestine

48. An element essential for nitrogen metabolism is
(a) magnesium
(b) iron
(c) molybdenum
(d) potassium

49. One of the following is incorrect
(a) The ears of snakes are not external but it has fangs
(b) The mammals have four cahmbered heart with no hair on body
(c) Round worm has three lips but is an intestinal parasite
(d) molluscans are shelled organisms

50. Which of the following has four chambered heart ?
(a) Lizard
(b) Crocodile
(c) Bird
(d) Fish

51. Annual rings are formed basically due to
(a) marked seasonal variations
(b) different development of xylem and phloem
(c) uniform climate conditions
(d) different kinds of phloem

52. Production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation is driven by energy from
(a) coenzyme A
(b) NADH2
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) movement of protons from inner mitochondrial membrane to the cytoplasm

53. Deletion or insertion of base pairs causes frameshift mutation unless the number of base pairs deleted or inserted are
(a) only one
(b) ten
(c) two
(d) three

54. Binomial nomenclature refers to
(a) two names of a species
(b) one specific and one local name of a species
(c) Two words of the name of a species
(d) Two life cyces of organism

55. In taxonomy class comes in between
(a) Kingdom, order
(b) Phylum,order
(c) Kingdom,family
(d) Family,genus

56. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering and
(a) cuts DNA base pairs at specific sites
(b) cuts DNA base pairs at variable sites
(c) joins two DNA segments
(d) cuts RNA base pairs at specific sites

57. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Whale is the largest fish
(b) Insects have three pair of legs
(c) Platyhelminthes have flame cells for excretion
(d) All the mammals have mammary glands but may not have hair

58. Agar, alginic acid and carragheen obtained from Gracilaria are chemically
(a) fats
(b) Phycocolloids
(c) proteins
(d) alkaloids

59. Which of the following is true about viruses?
(a) It is not parasite in a living host
(b) It can be cultured on artificial media
(c) It doesnot have a genetic material of its own
(d) It can be crystallized and kept in a bottle for several years

60. The separation of the chromosomes during metaphase can be best studied by
(a) Phase contrast microscope
(b) TEM
(c) electron microscope
(d) X ray technique

2. Genetics, Molecular Biology and Biotechnology : Laws of inheritance. Concept of gene and allelomorph. Linkage, crossing over and gene mapping. Structural and numerical changes in chromosomes and gene mutations. Sex determination and differentiation. Structure and synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins. Genetic code. Regulation of gene expression. Genetic engineering and crop improvement. Protoplast, cell, tissue and organ cultures. Somatic hybridization. Biofertilizers and biopesticides. Biotechnology in agri-horticulture, medicine and industry.

3. Tissue Systems : Origin, development, structure and function of primary and secondary tissues.

4. Plant Diversity and Systematics : Structure and function of plant forms from evolutionary aspects (viruses to Angiosperms including fossils). Principles of nomenclature, classification and identification of plants. Modern approaches in plant taxonomy. Recent classification of living organism into three groups (bacteria, archaea and eukarya).

5. Plant Physiology: Water relations. Mineral nutrition. Photosynthesis. Respiration. Nitrogen metabolism. Enzymes and coenzymes. Dynamics of growth, growth movements, growth substances, photomorphogenesis. Secondary metabolites. Isotopes in biological studies. Physiology of flowering.

6. Methods of Reproduction and Seed Biology : Vegetative, asexual and sexual methods of reproduction. Pollination and fertilization. Sexual incompatibility. Development, structure, dormancy and germination of seed.

7. Plant Pathology : Diseases of rice, wheat, sugarcane, potato, mustard, groundnut and cotton crops. Factors affecting infection (host factors, pathogen factors, biotic factors like rhizosphere and phyllosphere organisms). Chemical, biological and genetic methods of disease control (including transgenic plants).

8. Plant and Environment : Biotic and abiotic components. Ecological adaptation. Types of vegetational zones and forests of India. Deforestation, afforestation, social forestry and plant introduction. Soil erosion, wasteland, reclamation. Environmental pollution and its control (including phytoremediation). Bioindicators. Global warming.

9. Biodiversity, Plant Genetic Resources: Methods of conservation of plant genetic resources and its importance. Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). Endangered, threatened and endemic taxa. Role of cell/tissue culture in propagation and enrichment of genetic diversity. Plants as sources of food, fodder, forage, fibres, oils, drugs, wood and timber, paper, rubber, beverages, spices, essential oils and resins, gums, dyes, insecticides, pesticides and ornamentation. Biomass as a source of energy.

10. Origin of Life and Evolution: Basic concepts of origin of earth and origin of life. Theories of organic evolution, molecular basis of evolution.

Examination Syllabus – Subject : ZOOLOGY
1. Cell structure and function :
a. Prokaryote and eukaryote.
b. Structure of animal cell, structure and functions of cell organelles.
c. Cell cycle-mitosis, meiosis.
d. Structure and contents of nucleus including nuclear membrane, structure of chromosome and gene, chemistry of genetic components.
e. Mendel’s laws of inheritance, linkage and genetic recombination; cytoplasmic inheritance.
f. Function of gene: replication, transcription and translation; mutations (spontaneous and artificial); Recombinant DNA: principle and application.
g. sex determination in Drosophila and man; sex linkage in man.
2. Systematics :
a. Classification of non-chordates (up to sub-classes) and chordates (up to orders) giving general features and evolutionary relationship of the following phyla: Protozoa, Porifera, Coelenterata, Platyhelminthes, Nematheliminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Minor Phyla (Bryozoa, Phoronida and Chaetognatha) and Hemichordata.
b. Structure reprodcution and life history of the following types: Amoeba, Monocystis, Plasmodium, Paramaecium, Sycon, Hydra, Obelia, Fasciola, Taenia, Ascaris, Neanthes, Pheretima, Hirudinia, Palaemon, Buthus, Periplaneta, Lamellidens, Pila, Asterias and Balanoglossus.
c. Classification of chordates (up to orders), giving general features and evolutionary relationship of the following: Protochordata; Agnatha; Gnathostomata – Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia.
d. Comparative functional anatomy of the following based on type animals (Scoliodon, Rana, Calotes, Columba and Oryctolagus): integrument and its derivatives, endoskeleton, digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system including heart and aortic arches, urinogenital system; brain and sense organs (eye and ear); endocrine glands and other hormone producing structures, (Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads) their function.
3. Vertebrate Physiology and Biochemistry :
a. Chemical composition of protoplasm; nature and function of enzymes; vitamins, their sources and role; colloids and hydrogen ion concentration; biological oxidation, electron transport and role of ATP, energetic, glycolysis, citric acid cycle; vertebrate hormones: their type, sources and functions; pheromones and their role.
b. Neuron and nerve impulse-conduction and transmission across synapses; neurotransmitters and their role, including acetyl cholinesterase activity.
c. Homeostasis; osmoregulation; active transport and ion pump.
d. Composition of carbohydrates, fats, lipids and proteins; steroids.
4. Embryology :
a. Gametogenesis, fertilization, cleavage; gastrulation in frog and chick
b. Metamorphosis in frog and retrogressive metamorphosis in ascidian; extra-embryonic membranes in chick and mammal; placentation in mammals; Biogenetic law.
5. Evolution :
a. Origin of life; principles, theories and evidences of evolution; species concept.
b. Zoogeographical realms, insular fauna; geological eras.
c. Evolution of man; evolutionary status of man.
6. Ecology, Wildlife and Ethology :
a. Abiotic and biotic factors; concept of ecosystem, food chain and energy flow; adaptation of aquatic, terrestrial and aerial fauna; intra-and inter-specific animal relationships; environmental pollution: Types, sources, causes, control and prevention.
b. Wildlife of India; endangered species of India; sanctuaries and national parks of India.
c. Biological rhythms.
7. Economic Zoology :
a. Beneficial and harmful insects including insect vectors of human diseases.
b. Industrial fish, prawn and molluscs of India.
c. Non-poisonous and poisonous snakes of India.
d. Venomous animals-centipede, wasp, honey bee.
e. Diseases caused by aberrant chromosomes/genes in man; genetic counseling; DNA as a tool for forensic investigation.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

IAS SAMPLE PAPER LIFE SCIENCE – BOTANY SECTION

1. In Pinus roxburghii, the common pine tree, microsporophyll have :
(a) 2 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll
(b) 4 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(c) 2 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(d) 4 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll.

2. Megasporophylls which are arranged spirally and acropetaly on the central axis of the female cone of Pinus bear:
(a) 4 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(b) 2 megasporangia on ventral surface
(c) 2 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(d) 4 megasporangia on ventral surface.

3. In a vast marine ecosystem, certain sea developed colouration. This red colour is due to the presence of large population of -which one of the following organisms :
(a) certain members of Rhodophyta
(b) Physarium
(c) dinoflagellates
(d) diatoms and members of red algae.

4. Like angiospermic parasite such as Cuscuta, there are some parasitic forms of Rhodophyta, which are colourless, heterotrophic and grow on other members of Rhodophyta. Select which one is a parasitic form of red algae :
(a) Gelidium
(b) Harveyella
(c) Choridras
(d) both (a) & (b).

5. If sporangia are developed from a single initial cell, the development of sporangia is designated as
(a) eusporangiate
(b) leptosporangiate
(c) monosporangiate
(d) polysporangiate.

6. The neck of archegonium of Pinus roxburghii is made up of :
(a) 8 cells arranged in 4 tiers of 2 cells each
(b) 8 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 4 cells each
(c) 4 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 2 cells each
(d) none of the above.

7. It is matter of common observation that monocots and dicots have one and two cotyledons respectively but in gymnosperms the numer of cotyledons are:
(a) always 3
(b) 3-18
(c) 2-5
(d) variable 1-2.

8. Oenothera type of female gametophyte is always:
(a) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(b) 16 nucleate and 13 celled
(c) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
(d) 4 nucleate and 4 celled.

9. Which one of the following is the most common types of embryo sac:
(a) allium type
(b) oenothera type
(c) polygonum type
(d) adoxa type

10. If the chromosome number of cells of nucellus of megasporangium of Pinus is 16 what would be the chromosome number of endosperm cells:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 48
(d) 08.

11. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides longitudinally and the Ca and Cb transversely both contribute to the development of embryo, this type of the embryogeny would be :
(a) onagrad
(b) astrad
(c) solanad
(d) both a and b

12. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides transversly the embryogeny would be
(a) solanad and Asterad type
(b) chenopodiad and Onagrad type
(c) caryophyllad and Onagrad type
(d) solanad and Chenopodiad type.

13. Parthenium argentatum which is commonly,known as ‘Guayule’ provides which one of the following commercial products:
(a) para-rubber
(b) a product equivalent to para-rubber
(c) chewing gum
(d) Jo-jo-ba oil.

14. Ectomycorrhiza is commonly found in:
(a) Pinus
(b) Quercus
(c) Rhododendron
(d) all of the above.

15. One of the most important raw material for paper and pulp industry comes from our vast forest resources, select the source for paper and pulp
industry extensively used in our country:
(a) Dendrobium
(b) Diospyros
(c) Dendrocalamus
(d) Cedrus.

16. Under the umbrella of social forestry a system has been launched in which agriculture and forestry are involved. Select the name of the system:
(a) block cutting system
(b) jhum cultivation system
(c) taungya system
(d) none of them.

17. Electrostatic precipitators are extensively employed to control:
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) none of the above.

18. Cyclone collectors are nowadays commonly used to control:
(a) air pollution with special reference to dust particles
(b) radioactive pollution
(c) water pollution in general
(d) water pollution with special reference to Ganga Action Plan,

19. Myrmecophily is a beneficial association between some organisms and some flowering plants such as Cassia. Select the correct organism from the following:
(a) bacteria
(b) mycoplasma
(c) honey bees
(d) ants.

20. Reindeer Moss which is the most important and staple food for Reindeer in Arctic region belongs to which group of plants:
(a) algae
(b) bryophyta
(c) lichens
(d) pteridophyta.

21. Cauliflorous flowers are commonly found in which one of the following plants:
(a) Cassia
(b) Brassica (Cauliflower)
(c) Polyalthia
(d) none of the above.

22. The botanical name of cauliflower is:
(a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(b) Brassica oleracea var. gongoloides
(c) Brassica oleracea
(d) none of these

23. Ligulate leaves are found in:
(a) myrtaceae
(b) compositae
(c) poaceae
(d) cyperaceae.

24. The phenomenon of anisophylly where 2 different sizes of leaves are found is exhibited in which one of the following plants:
(a) Ranunculus aquatalis
(b) Limnophila heterophyllum
(c) Cabomba stellaris
(d) none of them.

25. In opposite phyllotaxy, if the leaves are of different size and arranged alternately, the phenomenon is termed as:
(a) distichous
(b) pentastichous
(c) anisophylly
(d) heterophylly.

26. Ligulate flowers are the diagnostic character of which one of the following family:
(a) graminae
(b) asteraceae
(c) brassicaceae
(d) papilionaceae.

27. If an angiospermic plant produces staminate, pistilate and bisexual flowers on the same inflorescence, the condition would be termed as:
(a) dioecious
(b) trioecious
(c) polygamous
(d) andro-gynoecious.

328. There are certain plant species which flower only once in their lifespan. This condition is named as:
(a) polygamous
(b) polycarpic
(c) monocarpic
(d) pericarpic.

29. In order to check the purity of honey and its source, pollen grains are being studied in a sample of honey. Such a study is called as:
(a) aeropalynology
(b) palynology
(c) melittopalynology
(d) latropalynology.

330. If both the anthers and filaments are fused together to form a compact structure with sigmoid in appearance the condition is termed as:
(a) syngenesious
(b) androecious
(c) syngynandrous
(d) synandrous.

31. If the anthers are fused together forming a tubular structure while the filaments remain free, the condition is found in which one of the following family:
(a) malvaceae
(b) cucurbitaceae
(c) solanaceae
(d) asteraceae.

32. If the anthers are fused to form a tubular structure whereas the filaments remain free, the condition is termed as:
(a) epipetalous – syngenesious
(b) epipetalous – synandrous
(c) polyandrous
(d) none of them.

33. Synandrous condition of stamens, where both anthers and filaments are fused to form a compact structure is found in :
(a) Luffa
(b) Lagenaria
(c) Lilium
(d) both a and b.

34. If a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young but becoming 2-locular with age and the appearance of the fruit so developed is pod like, the fruit would be grouped under:
(a) lomentum
(b) siliqua
(c) silicula
(d) capsule.

35. lf a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young becoming bilocular at maturity and the length of the fruit is less than ifs breadth, the fruit would be called as:
(a) cypsella
(b) silicula
(c) silique
(d) Sorosis

36.If a fruit is developed from(2G), bilocular with one ovule in each locule and pendulously attached and the wall of the ovary possess vittae, the fruitis designated as:
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) cremocarp
(d) capsule.

___________________________________________________________________________________________

IAS SAMPLE PAPER LIFE SCIENCE – ZOOLOGY SECTION

1. Suckling the young by both male and female parents is observed in
(a) Pangolin
(b) Macropus
(c) Loris
(d) Ornithorhynchus

2. The reptilian character of prototherians is
(a) Diaphragm
(b) T-shaped clavicle
(c) Seven cervical vertebrae
(d) only left aortic arch present

3. Endostyle is present in
(a) Ammocoetus larva
(b) Axolotl larva
(c) Asicidian tadpole
(d) Frog’s tadpole

4. In rabbit succus entericus is secreted by
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(b) Brunner gland
(c) Submaxillary gland
(d) Islet of Langerhans

5. The vitamin which regulates the absorption of calcium from intestine in rabbit?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) K
(d) E

6. Spigelion lobe 1in rabbit is a lobe of the
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Liver

7. The dentition in rabbit is heterodont and
(a) Polyphyodont
(b) Diphyodont
(c) Acrodont
(d) Monophyodont

8. Hypoparathyroidism leads to
(a) Myxoedema
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Tetany
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

9. The joint between atlas and odontoid process of axis in rabbit is
(a) Pivot
(b) Ball and Socket
(c) Hinge
(d) Arthroidal

10. lon essential for muscle contraction is
(a) Mg
(b) Hg
(c) Mn
(d) Ca

11. Gestation period in human beings is
(a) 80 days
(b) 180 days
(c) 270 days
(d) 380 days

12. When the blood group of a person is not known which type of blood can be transfused to him in emergency ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) 0
(d) AB

13. In an operon a repressor is produced by

(a) Structural gene
(b) regulator gene
(c) inducer
(d) Nonsense codon

14. Consider the following developmental zones seen in intracartilaginous bone formation in long and short bones:
1. Zone of maturation and hypertrophy
2. Zone of proliferation and multiplication
3. Zone of cartilage calcification
4. Zone of cartilage removal and bone deposition
What is the correct sequence of the above zones from the distal ends?
(a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
(b) 2 – I – 3 – 4
(c) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(d) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

15. Which one of the following sensory receptors is found in epidermis?
(a) Merkel disc
(b) Meissner’s corpuscles
(c) Ruffini ending
(d) Pacinian corpuscles

16. Which one of the following cells of germinal epithelium of testis devides by meiosis?
(a) Type A spermatogonium
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Spermatid
(d) Secondary spermatocyte

17. The body of the vertebra develops from
(a) notochord
(b) primitive streak
(c) one sclerotome
(d) cephalic and caudal halves of adjacent sclerotomes

18. Which of the following does not contribute to the development of laryngeal cartilages?
(a) Tuberculum impar
(b) Mesenchyme derived from neural crest
(c) Cartilages of fourth to sixth pairs of pharyngeal arches
(d) Hypobranchial eminence

19. The diaphragm is formed from the following except
(a) septum transversum
(b) paraxial mesoderm
(c) pleuroperitoneal membranes
(d) dorsal mesentery of oesphagus

20. Support of the muscles against gravity is a function of which one of the following?
(a) Reticular nuclei
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Supplementary motor area
(d) Amygdala

21. The type of synaptic inhibition seen in cerebellum is
(a) pre-synaptic
(b) post-synaptic
(c) feed forward
(d) Renshaw cell

22. The characteristic brown-red colour of faeces is due to the presence of
(a) biliverdin
(b) urobilinogen
(c) stercobilin
(d) bilirubin

23. Consider the following:
1. Electrocardiogram
2. Phonocardiogram
3. Jugular venous pulse tracing
4. Carotid pulse tracing
Which of the above must be recorded simultaneously in order to calculate the duration of total electromechanical systole?
(a) I and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

__________________________________________________________________________________________

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Test 2009

NATIONAL (GOVT.) EXAM OF ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCE, ANSARI NAGAR NEW DELHI
Total Seats : 50
MBBS: 50
BDS: None
Eligibility :12TH Standard (60% IN PCBE)
Age Required: Min. 17 to max.: None
Examination Type : OBJECTIVE P(60)+C(60)+B(60)+GK(20)
Time given :3.3 HRS.

Important Dates
Examination date … 01.06.2009 (Sunday).
Last date of sale of Application Forms from SBI branches and by Post (except AIIMS Campus, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi): 21.02.2009
Last date of sale of Application Forms from SBI Branch Ansari Nagar, New Delhi: 27.02.2009
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF COMPLETED APPLICATIONS FORMS IN EXAMINTION SECTION, A.I.I.M.S.: 28.02.2009 till 5 PM

Test Result Declaration ……….. around July 15, 2009

Syllabus For AIIMS 2009

I Diversity in Living World
Diversity of living organisms
Classification of the living organisms (five kingdom classification, major groups and principles of classification within each kingdom).
Systematics and binomial System of nomenclature
Salient features of animal (non chordates up to phylum level and chordates up to class level) and plant (major groups; Angiosperms up to subclass) classification.
Botanical gardens, herbaria, zoological parks and museums.

II Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
Tissues in animals and plants.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different parts of flowering plants: Root, stem, leaf, inflorescence, flower, fruit and seed.
Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems of an annelid (earthworm), an insect (cockroach) and an amphibian (frog).

III CELL: STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
Cell: cell wall, cell membrane and cell organelles’ (plastids, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies/dictyosomes, ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, centrioles) and nuclear organization.
Mitosis, meiosis, cell cycle.
Basic chemical constituents of living bodies.
Structure and functions of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Enzymes: types, properties and function.

IV Plant Physiology
Movement of water, food, nutrients and gases, Plants and Water Mineral nutrition, respiration, Photosynthesis, Plant growth and development.

V Human Physiology
Digestion and absorption.
Breathing and respiration.
Body fluids and circulation.
Excretory products and elimination.
Locomotion and movement.
Neural control and coordination,
chemical coordination and regulation.

VI SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
Pollination and fertilization in flowering plants. Development of seeds and fruits.
Human reproduction: reproductive system in male and female, menstrual cycle. Production of gametes, fertilization, implantation, ,embryo development, pregnancy and parturation. Reproductive health – birth control, contraception and sexually transmitted diseases.

VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
Mendelian inheritance. Chromosome theory of inheritance, deviations from Mendelian ratio (gene interaction- Incomplete dominance, co-dominance, complementary genes, multiple alleles). Sex determination in human beings: XX, XY. Linkage and crossing over. Inheritance pattern of haemophilia and blood groups in human beings. DNA: replication, transcription, translation. Gene expression and regulation. Genome and Human Genome Project. DNA fingerprinting. Evolution: Theories and evidences.

VIII BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE
Animal husbandry.
Basic concepts of immunology, vaccines.
Pathogens, Parasites.
Plant breeding, tissue culture, food production.
Microbes in household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment and energy generation.
Cancer and AIDS.
Adolescence and drug/alcohol abuse.

IX BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Recombinant DNA technology.
Applications in Health, Agriculture and Industry
Genetically modified (GM) organisms; biosafety issues.
Insulin and Bt cotton

X ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT
Ecosystems: components, types and energy flow.
Species, population and community.
Ecological adaptations.
Centres of diversity and conservation of biodiversity, National parks and sanctuaries.
Environmental issues.

———————————————————————————————–
Biology Sample Test Paper
———————————————————————————————–

1. The changes in the turgor pressure changes in pulvinus causes opening and closing of the leaves in which of the following?
(a) Desmodium
(b) Mimosa pudica
(c) Tulips
(d) Drosera

2. The plant turns towards light
(a) It is due to differential growth more on the upper side than lower side
(b) It is due to differential growth more on the lower side than upper side

3. CO is more harmful pollutant because
(a) It has more affinity for haemoglobin
(b) it reacts quickly with UV radiations
(c) it has less affinity for Hb
(d) it cannot compete with oxygen

4. If the level of urea increases in blood it is
(a) oligouria
(b) anuria
(c) uremia
(d) glucosouria

5. The most basic amino acid is
(a) arginine
(b) histidine
(c) glycine
(d) glutamine

6. Which of this aminoacid is hydrophillic?
(a) Histidine
(b) Phenylalanine
(c) Glycine
(d) Lysine

7. The bacteria which converts nitrites to nitrates is
(a) Nitrosococcus
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Azotobacter

8. Nissl granules are rich in
(a) proteins and lipids
(b) ribonucleoproteins
(c) fatty acids
(d) nucleic acids

9. Spider, prawn, moth are included in phylum
(a) annelida
(b) arthropoda
(c) mollusca
(d) echinodermata

10. Assertion (A) : Lamina is modified into pitcher in Nepenthes to capture insects for nitrogenous food Reason (R) : They lack chlorophyll and are not green in colour
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

11. Assertion (A) : Rhizopus doesnot form zygospores Reason (R) : It shows hetrothallism
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

12. Assertion (A) Ossicles found around the mouth of sea urchin forms Aristotle lantern Reason (R) : Teeth of Aristotle lantern are analogous to teeth of man as both are masticatory
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

13. Assertion (A) : HnmRNA is larger than mRNA. Reason (R) : HnmRNA is madeup of more exons and introns for translation
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

14. What is Lanugo?
(a) vestigeal hair of new born baby
(b) an African fruit
(c) A man without one leg
(d) excessively tall person

15. Deletion or Addition of genes in DNA is
(a) DNA amplification
(b) Translation
(c) Substitution
(d) Translocation

16. Assertion A. The use of UV rays as water purifier is discouraged Reason R. They donot have residual effect
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

17. Assertion A. MRI is a powerful method to detect tumours Reason R. It doesnot involve radaitions
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

18. Assertion A. During ovulation the oocyte has released one polar body
Reason R. When oocyte is in fallopian tube it is in second metaphase state
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

19. Assertion (A): The linked genes tend to get inherited together Reason (R) The bond between them is fails to break
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

20. Assertion (A): Mesosomes help in respiration in bacteria. Reason (R) They donot have mitochondria
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

21. Oxygen is transported in the blood by
(a) simple difusion
(b) passive diffusion
(c) Carrier mediated faciliated diffusion
(d) faciliatated diffusion

22. Assertion :Vitamin K is given for blood coagulation. Reason : It hepls in synthesis of fibrinogen in liver
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

23. Mammals without exception is
(a) sweat glands
(b) hair
(c) aortic arch
(d) diaphragm

24. Which of the following is important for transcription ?
(a) DNA methylase
(b) CAAT box
(c) promoter
(d) DNA polymerase

25. Number of DNA molecule in bivalent are
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3

26. Wuchereria bancrofti lives in
(a) muscles
(b) capilleries
(c) lymph vessels
(d) intestine

27. What is obtained from Cannabis sativa?
(a) Opium
(b) cocaine
(c) morphine
(d) Hashish

28. Which is responsible for static equilibrium?
(a) semicircular canal and cochlea
(b) semicircular canal and utriculus
(c) lagena and sacculus
(d) otolith and lagena

29. If ATP is not provided to the contracted muscle
(a) actinomyosin will bind to tropomyosin
(b) actinomyosin will not bind to tropomyosin
(c) it will not be able to detach from tropomyosin
(d) calcium ions will not form complex with tropomyosin

30. The cell organelle participating is photorespiration is
(a) nucleolus
(b) dictyosome
(c) peroxisome
(d) glyoxysome

31. Eyes of cats glitter at night due to presence of
(a) luciferin
(b) tapetum lucidum
(c) tapetum fibrosum
(d) porphyropsin

32. When a woman takes dairy products she complains of diarrhoea and stomachache. She does not complain when she consumes food other than dairy intakeas. She is suffering with deficiency of which of these enzymes?
(a) lactase
(b) glucose 6 phosphatase
(c)catalase
(d)pepsin

33. Which of these is not permeable through cell membrane?
(a) CO
(b) glucose
(c) Glucose-6-phosphate
(d) Glutamic acid

34. Which of these is correctly matched?
(a) Butterfly — camouflage
(b) Garden lizard— mimicry
(c) House lizard— autotomy
(d) none of these

35. Somatic hybridization is
(a) mixing nuclei of two different somatic cells
(b) allowing the fusion of far of related species
(c) fusing nucleus of plant cell with animal cell
(d) fusion of gametic nucleus with nucleus of somatic cell

36. Thalidomide drug results in
(a) flipper like limbs
(b) loss of hands and feet
(c) brachydactyly
(d) blood poisoning

37. Who receives electron at the end in electron transport chain?
(a) H2O
(b) H2
(c) CO2
(d) cytochrome a3

38. Which of the following is responsible for seed dormancy?
(a) Auxins
(b) Cytokinins
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Abscissic acid

39. HIV mainly infects
(a) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
(b) helper lymphocytes
(c) Cell mediated T lymphoctes
(d) Killer T lymphocytes

40. Secondary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is
(a) PEP
(b) RUBP
(c) PGAL
(d) Rubisco

41. C4 plants are abundant in
(a) Temperate region with more humid conditions
(b) Temperate region with more dry conditions
(c) Tropical region with more humid conditions
(d) Tropical region with more dry conditions

42. The appearence of primitive streak in the chicken embryo is the first sign of
(a) blastogenesis
(b) gastrulogenesis
(c) neurilation
(d) notogenesis

43. Assertion (A) :All members of bee society are diploid except drones Reason (R) : Drones are produced parthenogenetically
(a) A is correct and R is explanation to A
(b) A is correct and R is not an explanation to A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true

44. One of the following is associated with fat digestion
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Sphaerosomes
(d) Glyoxysomes

45. If the fertilizers are added to freshwater
(a) plants will die
(b) eutrophication
(c) number of fish will decrease
(d) number of aquatic animals overall increase

46. Haemophillia is caused by
(a) V factor
(b) VIII factor
(c) III factor
(d) none of these

47. Major contribution to oxygen is by
(a) forest
(b) phytoplankton
(c) grassland
(d) zooplanktons

48. Which of these pairs is vestigeal?
(a) Coccyx and ear pinna muscles
(b) Coccyx and premolar
(c) Facial hair in ladies
(d) Coccyx and intercostal muscles

49. Granules are not present in
(a) monocytes
(b) neutrophills
(c) basophills
(d) eosinophills

50. The correct pair constituent which is made of aggregation of
(a) Cellulose — cell wall
(b) Ribosomes — ER
(c) Thylakoids — grana
(d) Acrosomes — ER

___________________________________________________________________
SRMC Chennai NATIONAL (PRIVATE)
SHRI RAMCHANDRA MEDICAL COLLEGE & RESEARCH INSTITUTE, PORUR, CHENNAI

Total Seats: 210
MBBS: 150
BDS: 60 ,
Min. Qualification: 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age required: Min.: 17 -Max None
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(50)+C(50)+B(70)+GK(10)
____________________________________________________________________

Try answering this Biology Paper : Entrance Test for SRM University held in May 2009

1. Match the following
1. endarch and closed vascular bundle a. pericycle
2. outermost layer of stele b. monocot stem
3. dorsiventral leaf c. monocot root
4. conjunctive tissue are sclerenchymatous d. dicot leaf

a) 1-b 2-a 3-d 4-c
b) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d
c) 1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b
d) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a

2. Which of the following is not a variety of Oryza sativa?
a) CO15
b) TMV2
c) APT19
d) ADT16

3. Choose the incorrect statement/s
1. The most important phagocytes are macrophages and neutrophils
2. The process of production of lympphocytes in bone marrow is called haematopoiesis
3. Thymus develops at about 7th week of gestation
4. The mucosa is endowed with secretory IgA
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only

4. The genome of retroviruses contain
a) only 1 double stranded DNA
b) 2 single strand DNA
c) 2 identical single strand RNAs
d) 2 identical single strand DNAs

5. For every carbon fixation during dark reaction_____ATP and _____ NADPH2 are consumed
a) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2
b) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH2
c) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2
d) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH2

6. Which of the following statements is/ are not true ?
a) In Abelomoschus esculentus the fruit is schizocarp
b) The leaves of Nicotiana tabaccum contain anabasine
c) The tepals are gamophyllous in Riccinus communis
d) Ovary superior trilocular ovules on axile placentation in musaceae

7. Bundle sheath of the leaf is made up of ________
a) sclerenchyma
b) collenchyma
c) parenchyma
d) stellate parenchyma

8. __________ fowl is the oldest and most popular breed of America
a) New hampshire
b) Plymouth rock
c) Wyandotte
d) Rhode island red

9. Pick out the trace elements from the following
a) Co & S
b) Mg & K
c) Cu & Zn
d) Mn & P

10 Gastric HCl secretion is decreased by __________
a) parathormone
b) mineralocorticoids
c) aldosterone
d) calcitonin

Here are the first 10 questions and many more to follow (courtesy….Jasleen Kaur of BBIPL)

_________________________________________________________________________

AMU PMT Biology Paper Answered 2009

Dear Students,
We are providing you all the clues and answeres to the AMU Biology Paper 2009 (Exam held 28th May). The complete question papers with hints would be available in forthcoming issue of Competitive Book , Pradeep’s Objective Biology, 2009 June Edition. The questions were in Objective format.

What is so interesting about Allen’s Rule ?
Allen’s rule
A biological rule given by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877. According to him endotherms from colder climates usually have shorter limbs (or appendages) than the equivalent animals from warmer climates.

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How is LUCY famous for ?

Lucy (Australopithecus afarensis) was an adult female fossil of about 25 years. About 40% of her skeleton was found, and her pelvis, upper leg and tibia show her to have been bipedal. Although there is evidence that afarensis was also partly arboreal (tree-dwelling). She was about 107 cm (3’6″) tall and about 28 kg in weight.
Humans have much shorter arms compared to their legs than chimpanzees and Lucy, interestingly, falls roughly in the middle.

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What do you mean by photochemical smog ?

Photochemical smog is a mixture of pollutants. It includes partculates,nitrogen oxides, ozone, aldehydes, peroxyethanoyl nitrate (PAN), unreacted hydrocarbons, etc. The smog often has a brown haze due to the presence of nitrogen dioxide. It causes painful eyes.

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What is Winterbottom’s Sign ?

A early symptom of African trypanosomiasis, a disease caused by the parasites Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense and Trypanosoma brucei gambiense It is more commonly known as African sleeping sickness.
Winterbottom’s sign includes swelling of lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) along the back of the neck, in the posterior cervical lymph nodes. This is because trypanosomes travel in the lymphatic fluid and cause inflammation.

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AMU PMT Biology Sample Paper 2009

1. In Pinus roxburghii, the common pine tree, microsporophyll are having :
(a) 2 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll
(b) 4 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(c) 2 microsporangia on adaxial side of microsporophyll
(d) 4 microsporangia on abaxial side of microsporophyll.

2. Megasporophylls which are arranged spirally and acropetaly on the central axis of the female cone of Pinus bear:
(a) 4 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(b) 2 megasporangia on ventral surface
(c) 2 megasporangia on dorsal surface
(d) 4 megasporangia on ventral surface.

3. In a vast marine ecosystem, certain sea developed colouration. This red colour is due to the presence of large population of -which one of the following organisms :
(a) certain members of Rhodophyta
(b) Physarium
(c) dinoflagellates
(d) diatoms and members of red algae.

4. Like angiospermic parasite such as Cuscuta, there are some parasitic forms of Rhodophyta, which are colourless, heterotrophic and grow on other members of Rhodophyta. Select which one is a parasitic form of red algae :
(a) Gelidium
(b) Harveyella
(c) Choridras
(d) both (a) & (b).

5. If sporangia are developed from a single initial cell, the development of sporangia is designated as
(a) eusporangiate
(b) leptosporangiate
(c) monosporangiate
(d) polysporangiate.

6. The neck of archegonium of Pinus roxburghii is made up of :
(a) 8 cells arranged in 4 tiers of 2 cells each
(b) 8 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 4 cells each
(c) 4 cells arranged in 2 tiers of 2 cells each
(d) none of the above.

7. It is matter of common observation that monocots and dicots have one and two cotyledons respectively but in gymnosperms the numer of cotyledons are:
(a) always 3
(b) 3-18
(c) 2-5
(d) variable 1-2.

8. Oenothera type of female gametophyte is always:
(a) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(b) 16 nucleate and 13 celled
(c) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
(d) 4 nucleate and 4 celled.

9. Which one of the following is the most common types of embryo sac:
(a) allium type
(b) oenothera type
(c) polygonum type
(d) adoxa type

10. If the chromosome number of cells of nucellus of megasporangium of Pinus is 16 what would be the chromosome number of endosperm cells:
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 48
(d) 08.

11. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides longitudinally and the Ca and Cb transversely both contribute to the development of embryo, this type of the embryogeny would be :
(a) onagrad
(b) astrad
(c) solanad
(d) both a and b

12. lf Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides transversly the embryogeny would be
(a) solanad and Asterad type
(b) chenopodiad and Onagrad type
(c) caryophyllad and Onagrad type
(d) solanad and Chenopodiad type.

13. Parthenium argentatum which is commonly,known as ‘Guayule’ provides which one of the following commercial products:
(a) para-rubber
(b) a product equivalent to para-rubber
(c) chewing gum
(d) Jo-jo-ba oil.

14. Ectomycorrhiza is commonly found in:
(a) Pinus
(b) Quercus
(c) Rhododendron
(d) all of the above.

15. One of the most important raw material for paper and pulp industry comes from our vast forest resources, select the source for paper and pulp industry extensively used in our country:
(a) Dendrobium
(b) Diospyros
(c) Dendrocalamus
(d) Cedrus.

16. Under the umbrella of social forestry a system has been launched in which agriculture and forestry are involved. Select the name of the system:
(a) block cutting system
(b) jhum cultivation system
(c) taungya system
(d) none of them.

17. Electrostatic precipitators are extensively employed to control:
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) none of the above.

18. Cyclone collectors are nowadays commonly used to control:
(a) air pollution with special reference to dust particles
(b) radioactive pollution
(c) water pollution in general
(d) water pollution with special reference to Ganga Action Plan,

19. Myrmecophily is a beneficial association between some organisms and some flowering plants such as Cassia. Select the correct organism from the following:
(a) bacteria
(b) mycoplasma
(c) honey bees
(d) ants.

20. Reindeer Moss which is the most important and staple food for Reindeer in Arctic region belongs to which group of plants:
(a) algae
(b) bryophyta
(c) lichens
(d) pteridophyta.

21. Cauliflorous flowers are commonly found in which one of the following plants:
(a) Cassia
(b) Brassica (Cauliflower)
(c) Polyalthia
(d) none of the above.

22. The botanical name of cauliflower is:
(a) Brassica oleraceavar. capitata
(b) Brassica oleracea var. gongoloides
(c) Brassica oleracea.
(d() none of these

23. Ligulate leaves are found in:
(a) myrtaceae
(b) compositae
(c) poaceae
(d) cyperaceae.

24. The phenomenon of anisophylly where 2 different sizes of leaves are found is exhibited in which one of the following plants:
(a) Ranunculus aquatalis
(b) Limnophila heterophyllum
(c) Cabomba stellaris
(d) none of them.

25. In opposite phyllotaxy, if the leaves are of different size and arranged alternately, the phenomenon is termed as:
(a) distichous
(b) pentastichous
(c) anisophylly
(d) heterophylly.

26. Ligulate flowers are the diagnostic character of which one of the following family:
(a) graminae
(b) asteraceae
(c) brassicaceae
(d) papilionaceae.

27. If an angiospermic plant produces staminate, pistilate and bisexual flowers on the same inflorescence, the condition would be termed as:
(a) dioecious
(b) trioecious
(c) polygamous
(d) andro-gynoecious.

28. There are certain plant species which flower only once in their lifespan. This condition is named as:
(a) polygamous
(b) polycarpic
(c) monocarpic
(d) pericarpic.

29. In order to check the purity of honey and its source, pollen grains are being studied in a sample of honey. Such a study is called as:
(a) aeropalynology
(b) palynology
(c) melittopalynology
(d) latropalynology.

30. If both the anthers and filaments are fused together to form a compact structure with sigmoid in appearance the condition is termed as:
(a) syngenesious
(b) androecious
(c) syngynandrous
(d) synandrous.

31. If the anthers are fused together forming a tubular structure while the filaments remain free, the condition is found in which one of the following family:
(a) malvaceae
(b) cucurbitaceae
(c) solanaceae
(d) asteraceae.

32. If the anthers are fused to form a tubular structure whereas the filaments remain free, the condition is termed as:
(a) epipetalous – syngenesious
(b) epipetalous – synandrous
(c) polyandrous
(d) none of them.

33. Synandrous condition of stamens, where both anthers and filaments are fused to form a compact structure is found in :
(a) Luffa
(b) Lagenaria
(c) Lilium
(d) both a and b.

34. If a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young but becoming 2-locular with age and the appearance of the fruit so developed is pod like, the fruit would be grouped under:
(a) lomentum
(b) siliqua
(c) silicula
(d) capsule.

35. lf a fruit is developed from (2G) ovary with parietal placentation, unilocular when young becoming bilocular at maturity and the length of the fruit is less than ifs breadth, the fruit would be called as:
(a) cypsella
(b) silicula
(c) silique
(d) Sorosis

36.If a fruit is developed from (2 G), bilocular with one ovule in each locule and pendulously attached and the wall of the ovary possess vittae, the fruit is designated as:
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) cremocarp
(d) capsule.

37. If a dry fruit is developed from bicarpellary, syncarpous inferior ovary with a single basally placed ovule, the fruit would be called as :
(a) caryopsis
(b) cypsella
(c) capsule
(d) silique.

38. The prickly pear plant which is botanically named as Opuntia is an excellent example of:
(a) phyllode
(b) cladode
(c) cladophyll
(d) none of the above.

39. Goldfussia in which two different size of leaves are found is an excellent example of:
(a) heterophylly
(b) anisophylly
(c) distichous
(d) none of the above.

40.The characteristic cell wall material peptidogly can has another coverine of lipopolysaccharides. This specialized condition is found in :
(a) Gram + ve eubactena
(b) Gram- ve eubacteria
(c) all eucaryotes
(d) both (a) and (b).

41. Symbiotic association between tuft of fungal hyphae and the roots of Pinus is known as :
(a) mycoplasma
(b) mycophagy
(c) mycobiont
(d) mycorrhiza.

42. Mucilagiltous polysaccharide commonly called as CARAGHEEN and which is extensively used in various industries is obtained from:
(a) Gelidium
(b) Laminaria
(c) Chondrus
(d) Gracilaria.

43. The algal component of foliose lichen is termed as:
(a) phycosymbiont
(b) phycobiont
(c) mycobiont
(d) ascolichen.

44. Select the most successful group of organism on the surface of our globe:
(a) Gram + ve, heterotrophs
(b) Gram – ve photosynthetic cynobacteria
(c) chemoautotrophic bacteria
(d) photoautotrophic bacteria.

45. Which one of the following is not an essential fatty acid:
(a) stearic
(b) linoleic
(c) linolenic acid
(d) arachidonic acid.

46. The collection of various types of molecules in a cell is called :
(a) primordial soup
(b) cellular broth
(c) cellular pool
(d) molecular broth.

47. When the light intensity changes from I to 100 units, the response of the eye will increase by:
(a) 0.01
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 200.

48. Which is the wrong combination :
(a) Code- Gamow
(b) Chargaff-complementarity rule
(c) Wilkins – X-ray crystallography
(d) Watson- Reverse transcription.

49. In a DNA molecule :
(a) nitrogenous bases are bonded covalently to phosphate groups
(b) pentose sugars are bonded ionically to the nitrogenous bases
(c) pentose sugars are bonded by hydrogen bonds to the nitrogenous bases
(d) nitrogenous bases are bonded to each other by hydrogen bonds.

50. Body temperature of many animals correspond to the environmental temperature. They are known as :
(a) heterothennic
(b) homoeothermic
(c) endothermic
(d) poikilothermic.

51.Deficiency of vasopressin (ADH ) leads to :
(a) diabetes mellitus
(b) diabetes insipidus
(c) grave’s disease
(d) goitre.

52. The junction between two adjacent smooth muscle cells is a.
(a) occluding junction
(b) intermediate junction
(c) desmosorne
d) gap junction.

53. Oestrogen is secreted by :
(a) pituitary gland
(b) ovarian tissue
(c) Graffian follicle
(d) placenta.

54. The structure which is capable of stretching many times its size:
(a) lungs
(b) stomach
(c) uterus
(d) pupil of the eye.

55. Kupffer cells are found in
(a) spleen
(b) liver
(c) lung alveoli
(d) blood.

56. If a person wears a special kind of a spectacle that produced an upright image on the retina then he will:
(a) see everything upside down
(b) see everything upright
(c) initially see everything upside down but regain normal upright vision after a few days
(d) initially see everything upright but after a few days see everything upsided down.

57. Which is more efficient medium for oxygen uptake in respiration:
(a) aquatic
(b) aerial
(c) marine
(d) esturine.

58. The aquaduct of Sylvius connects :
(a) 1st and 2nd ventricles
(b) 2nd and 3rd ventricles
(c) 3rd and 4th ventricles (
d) 4th ventricle and central canal.

59. In man regulation of respiration and heart beat is maintained by:
(a) cerebrum
(b) medulla oblongata
(c) cerebellum
(d) spinal cord.

60. The change in the partial pressure of CO2 in blood is determined by :
(a) carotid sinus
(b) carotid bodies
(c) surface of lungs
(d) carotid sinus and carotid bodies.

61.lf two autosomal sets with single sex chromosome (AA +ZO ) are present in a moth, the moth is:
(a) sterile male
(b) intersex
(c) gynandromorph
(d) fertile female.

62. A child has the blood group ‘O’ The possible genotypes of his parents are:
(a) IA IB x IA IO
(b) lOlO x IAIA
(c) IAlB, 1O 1O
(d) IAIO X IAIO

63. Muscular dystrophy in human beings is a sex-linked lethal disease and males with Xdy dooms to die ( d= gene for dystrophy ). Frequent marriages between X+Xd females and X+Y males in the long run will result in female : male ratio
(a) 2:1
(b) 2:2
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:1

64. HIV codes for the gene (S) :
(a) gag
(b) pol
(c) env
(d) All the above.

65. A number of researches have studied the potential transmission of AIDS by biting insects like mosquitoes. Laboratory studies conclusively showed that HIV:
(a) cannot replicate or survive for long period
(b) can replicate
(c) can survive, but remains dormant
(d) can replicated after long time.

66. A person may die after getting a bee sting in his body due to :
(a) toxicity
(b) coagulation of blood
(c) anaphylactic shock
(d) toxicity and coagulation of blood

67. G6 PD dificiency ( glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase; required for minor glycolysis in human beings) is likewise a sex- linked disease. Like sickle cell anaemia it also afford some protection against malaria. This is an example when a gene can effect more than one trait. This phenomenon is referred as:
(a) pleiotropy
(b) pseudodominance
(c) epistatis
(d) phenocopy.

68. The enzyme used in the beverage industry to flavour soft drinks and in the baking industry to sweeten the biscuits and cakes :
(a) Glycoamylase
(b) Amylase
(c) Proteoses
(d) Glucoamylase.

69. Which of the vitamins can t be deposited inside the body:
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Cholecalciferol
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Retinol.

70. Excessive pulling of ligaments between two bones causes:
(a) fracture of the bones
(b) sprain
(c) breakage of the muscles
(d) all the above.

71. The selection coefficient is
(a) the chance of an organism’s reproductive success
(b) the chance of an organism’s reproductive failure
(c) the genotype which have greatest survival rate
(d) the selection against recessive homozygotes.

72. In evolution the studies can be made at molecular level. For example the protein present in the blood of man and ape are similar. The base sequence in nucleic acids and amino acids sequence in protein in related organism is alike. These are the examples which one specifically referred to in:
(a) convergent evolution
(b) molecular analogy
(c) molecular homology
(d) homoplastic appearance.

73. Which one of the following genotype has one Barr body:
(a) XY
(b) XX
(c) XXX
(d) XYY.

74. The fusion of paternal and maternal sets of chromosomes of haploid gametes is known as:
(a) amphimixis
(b) coition
(c) synkaryon
(d) insemination.

75. Protein C which inactivates factor VIII and there by partly inhibits the clotting mechanism is activated by:
(a) tissue factor pathway inhibitor
(b) thrombin
(c) antithrombin III
(d) heparin.

76. Which of the following vitamins is used in Electron Transport System:
(a) cobalamine
(b) thiamine
(c) riboflavin
(d) ascorbic Acid.

77. Vitamin ‘A’ can be syntheshed inside the body by:
(a) stomach
(b) pancreas
(c) liver
(d) spleen.

78. Which of these bile products not used in the solubilization of fats:
(a) bile salts
(b) cholesterol
(c) lecithin
(d) bile pigments.

79. Besides corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) which other hormones also stimulate the retease of adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH ) :
(a) epinephrine and insulin
(b) insulin and aldosterone
(c) aldosterone and vasopressin
(d) epinephrine and vasopressin.

80. In normal atmosphere the amount of oxygen in air and dissolved oxygen in water respectively are:
(a) 21% and 17%
(b) 95% and 15%
(c) 32% and 7%
(d) 67% and 13%.

81.In an experiment an Amoeba was transferred from a container ‘A’ to container ‘B’. Amoeba developed a contractile vacuole. However the vacuole disappeared again when the amoeba was transferred back to container ‘A’, The container A and B respectively contained :
(a) fresh and marine water
(b) marine and fresh water
(c) both contained fresh water
(d) both contained marine water.

82. The concept of “biological species ” was proposed by:
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
(c) E Mayer
(d) Von Baer.

83. The hormone secreted by corpus luteum is
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) Progesterone
(d) FSH

84. Other than DNA polymerase, which are the enzymes involved in DNA synthesis :
(a) topoisomerase
(b) helicase
(c) RNA Primase
(d) all of the above.

85. Bulk of RNA is synthesized in a cell during:
(a) ‘S’ (synthetic) phase
(b) G1 phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M- phase.

86.”One gene one polypeptide chain” theory was proposed by:
(a) Beadle and Tatum
(b) Khorana and Nirenberg
(c) Watson and Koremberg
(d) Vernon- M-ingram.

87. Both DNA and RNA are present in :
(a) bacteria
(b) higher organisms
(c) bacteria and higher organisms
(d) none of the above.

88. RNA differs from DNA in having :
(a) thymine
(b) deoxyribose sugar
(c) uracil
(d) thiamine.

89. Kleinefelter ‘s syndrome occurs because of:
(a) presence of extra X-chromosome in female
(b) presence of only one X-chromosome in female
(c) presence of extra X-chromosome in male
(d) presence of extra Y-chromosome in male.

90. The nucleolus is the site of formation of:
(a) spindle fibres
(b) chromosomes
(c) ribosomes
(d) peroxysomes.

91. The Recapitulation theory or Biogenetic law was proposed by:
(a) Ernst Haeckel
(b) Von- Baer
(c) Weismann
(d) Menoet.

92. Find out the odd one
(a) Rohu
(b) Catla
(c) Mrigala
(d) Meckeral

93. Which of the following is the connecting link between Apes and Man?
(a) Dryopithecus
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Australopithecus
(d) Homo neanderthelensis

94.Which of the following is a taxon category?
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Division
(c) Polypetalae
(d) Cycas

95. If the tall red heterozygous flower is crossed with the short white homologus flower then it is called
(a) Test Cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Reciprocal cross
(d) Dihybrid cross.

96. Radioactive wastes cause
(a) Respiratory diseases
(b) Fluorosis
(c) Gene mutation
(d) Liver cirrhosis

97. The exchange of genes from one population to other is called
(a) Gene pool
(b) Gene frequency
(c) Gene flow
(d) Gene mutation

98. Gregor Mendel the father of genetics was
(a) An Austrian monk
(b) Italian
(c) The Swedish chemist
(d) An American scientist

99. The genetic material of genes is
(a) Only DNA
(b) RNA only
(c) DNA or RNA
(d) DNA & RNA

100. The natural genetic engineer is
(a) E. coli
(b) Klebsiella
(a) Frankia
(a) Agrobacterium

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

MAHE MANIPAL NATIONAL (PRIVATE)
MANIPAL ACADEMY OF HIGHER EDUCATION (DEEMED UNIVESITY)
Total Seats : 700
MBBS: 500
BDS: 200 ,
Min. Qualification : 12TH (50% IN PCBE)
Age: Min. 17 to none
Examination Type :OBJECTIVE P(120)+C(120)+BIO(80)+E(40)
Time given 3.00 hrs

SECTION – A

1. Give two functions of lenticels

i. Gaseous exchange
ii. transpiration

2. Give full name of ACTH

Adreno Cortico Trophic Hormone

Q. 3. Name the chemical released by WBCs which causes rise in temperature of the human body when infected.

Ans. Pyrogens

Q.4. Who signals the closure of stomata in certain plants during severe drought ?

Ans. Production of abssisic acid induces stomatal closure

Q.5. Examination of cells from foetal source is done by technique called as …….

Ans. Amniocentesis

Q.6. Match the following :

Column I ……………………………….. Column II

1. Vegetative reproduction by leaves ….a. Birds pollination
2. Haberlandt……………………………….b. Gall wasp
3. Mango flowers…………………………..c. Sage flower
4. Hypanthodium inflorescence…………..d.birds
5. Bees………………………………………..e.Bryophyllum
6. Ornithophily …………………………….f. Father of plant tissue culture
7. Kigelia pinnata.…………………………g. anemophily
8. Bottlebrush ……………………………h. bats
9. Cannabis sativa ……………………..Polygamous

Ans.
1.- e, 2.- f, 3.-I, 4.- b, 5.- c, 6.- a, 7- h 8.- d, 9.- g

Q.7. Define green manure with examples

Ans. Green manuring is the cultivation of aquick growing crop which is ploughed so that it gets mixed up with the soil e.g. Lens esculenta (Lentil, masur)

Q.8. Name the enzyme which can break and release the strand of DNA
Ans. Topoisomerase

Q.9. Match the columns :

A Marriage between neighbours….(i) Trapa, Litchi
B Triploid Endosperm………………(ii) Coleoptile
C Datura, Petunia………………….(iii) Coleorhiza
D Aril………………………………..(iv) Angiospermic seeds
E Mesocarp edible………………..(v) Cellular develpoment
F Plumule sheath…………………(vi) Geitonogamy
G Radicle sheath………………….(vii) Wheat, Rice, Maize
H Caryopsis……………………….(viii) Mango

Ans.
A – vi , B – iv, C – v, D – i, E – viii, F – ii, G – iii, H – vii

Q.10. Due to mistake in transcription instead of ATG, UAG is formed in mRNA, what will be the effect of this in polypeptide chain ?

Ans. UAG is the terminal codon therefore, it will stop the translation

SECTION – B

Q. 11. What is the ecological advantage of seed dormancy ?

Ans.
i. It is an adaptation to ensure that seeds germinate only when the favourable environment is available.
ii. It helps in the storage of food crops and their transport from the place of production to a place of more commercial and economic value.
iii. It enables the embryo to tide over the unfavourable period of the year and germinate only when the conditions are favourable for the establishment of seedling.
iv. In nature the period of dormancy always coincides with the period unfavourable for the seedlings of the species.
v. Seeds can be stored artificially to ensure agricultural productivity.

Q. 12. Define three kinds of growth
(i) Auxetic
(ii) Accretionary
(iii) Multiplicative

Ans.
i) Auxetic growth :
In this type of growth volume of the body increases due to growth of body cells without any increase in number of cell.
Eg. nematodes, rotifers, tunicates

(ii) Accretionary :
During post embryonic growth only special type of cells remain undifferentiated and when required they can differentiate and reinforce or repalce the worn out differentiated cells.

(iii) Multiplicative :
The growth of orgainsm occurs due to increase in the number of cells constituting the body Eg. growth of embryo and prenatal growth of higher animals.

Q.13. Distinguish between exons and introns

Ans. Reported by PHILLIPS SHARP

INTRON
1. Location : Nucleotides of mRNA which do not code for any aminoacid
2. Function : None as they are not transcribed

EXON
1.Nucleotides of mRNA which code for amino acids
2.They are transcribed

Q.13 Explain aneuploidy and polyploidy with one example each

Ans.
ANUEPLOIDY :
When the chromosome number of an individual is not the exact multiple of its haploid chromosome number or hetroploidy.
Eg. Mongolism

POLYPLOIDY :
When the chromosome number of an individual is a multiple of its haploid chromosome number
Eg. 3n, Hybrid variety of wheat

Q.14. Differentiate Allogamy and Autogamy

Ans.ALLOGAMY
1. Adaptation to nature ….Well adapted
2. Nature of flowers………Can be unisexual or hermaphrodite
3. Genetic Variations ….Many
4. Pollinating agents …. Have to depend on them
5. Amount of pollen ….Large is produced and wasted
6. Progeny …. Healthy generation due to hybrid vigour
7. Pollination … May or may not occur

AUTOGAMY
1. Adaptation to nature …. poor adaptation
2. Nature of flowers … always bisexual
3. Genetic Variations … None
4. Pollinating agents ….Need not depend on them
5. Amount of pollen …. Very little produced and wasted
6. Progeny … Poor progeny due to no variations
7. Pollination … Sure to occur

SECTION – C

Q.15. Give the examples of the following natural vegetative propagation

Ans
i. Bulbils : Family Liliaceae (eg. Dracaena, Agave)
ii. Gamme : Liverworts (Bryophytes)
iii. Corms : Amorphophallus , Alocasia
iv. Leaf : Bryophyllum, Bignonia

Q. 16 A man with blue eyes and black hair (homozygous for both) marries a woman with black eyes and blonde hair. Black eyes gene (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b) and black hair (R) is dominant over blonde hair (r) Work out the method of phenotypes of children of this couple.

Ans.
i. Genotype of the man : bbRR

ii. Genotype of the woman : BBrr or Bbrr

I. The phenotype of the children with mother as BBrr and father as bbRR will be
BBrr X bbRR
Ggamete type of mother : Br
Gamete type of father : bR
Offspring : Br X bR = BbRr
Therefore, all the offspring will have black eyes and black hair.

II The phenotype of the children with mother as Bbrr and father as bbRR will be
Bbrr X bbRR
Possible gamete types of mother are Br and bR
Possible gamete types of father is bR
Phenotype of children
Br x bR = BbRr (black eyes, black hair) or
bR x bR = bbRR (blue eyes,black hair)

Hence 50% children will have black eyes and black hair and 50% children will have blue eyes and black hair.

Q. 17. Describe three types of RNA with their role in protein synthesis.

Ans.
Messenger RNA (mRNA) :

i. heterogenous class of RNA with respect to its size ans stability
ii. They consists of 103 – 104 ribonucleotides
iii. role in translation
Transfer RNA (tRNA) :

i. Cloverleaf molecule or soluble RNA
ii. They consist of approximatey 75 nucleotides
iii. help in carrying amino acids to site of protein synthesis
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

i. rRNA forms 80% of the total cellular RNA
ii. required for ribosomal assembly to play key role in binding mRNA to ribosomes
iii. They have approximately 120-4700 basews in mammals.

Q.18. Explain homologous, analogous and vestigial organs provide evidence by giving one example each.

Ans.
Homologous organs :
Same origin but different functions
Eg. pentadactyl limbs of vertebrates ; divergent evolution

Analogous :
Different origin but functionally same
Eg. wings of an insect and bat; convergent evolution

Vestigial organ:
Remnant structures which are non-functinal in anorganism but were functional in the ancestor
Eg. Vermiform appendix and plica semilunaris of man.

Q.19. Explain important phases of menstrual cycle.

Ans.
I Follicular or Proliferating phase :
i. lasts for 14 days
ii. involves hormones FSH and LH
iii. This phase involves the growth of ovarian follicles; thickening of endometrium and lining of fallopian tubes

II Luteal or secretory Phase :
i. lasts for about 10 days
ii. involves peak of LH and progasterone
iii. Involves ovulation , formation of corpus leuteum which release progasterone

III Menstrual or bleeding phase :
i. lasts for about 4 days
ii. involves reduction of LH causing regression of corpus leuteum and progesterone thereby increasing FSH from anterior pituitary.
iii. Causes death of endometrium resulting in bleeding to slough endometrium

Q.20. Draw a well labelled diagram of

(i) Angiosperm female gametophyte

__________________________________________________________________________________________

ii) A Nephron

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BIOLOGY PAPER 2 (CBSE 10+2 BOARD EXAMINATION)

SECTION – A

Q. 1. Name the mechanism by which rapid speciation occurs .

Q. 2. Name the organism in which industrial melanism has been observed.

Q.3. Who proposed ‘Germplasm theory” of evolution ?

Q. 4. Who propounded ‘Biogenetic Law’ and gave ‘Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny’?

Q. 5. Expand NAD, and ATP

Q. 6. Name two monocarpic plants which show gregarious flowering.

Q. 7. Name the subdivisions of biology involved in the following :

a. Inheritance of curly hair
b. Development of chick

Q. 8. What is the significance of Miller and Urey’s experiment?

SECTION B

Q. 9. In Bambusa tulda (a flowering plant) flowering occurs once in

(a) 18 years
(b) 38 years
(c) 28 years
(d) 48 years

Q. 10.The breeding and treatment of silk worms for producing raw silk is called

(a) apiculture
(b) silviculture
(c) pisciculture
(d) aquaculture

Q.11.The science which deals with the study of drugs and preparation of medicines is called

(a) psychology
(b) pharmacology
(c) pathology
(d) physiology

Q.12. In TMV the heredity material is

(a) DNA
(b) protein
(c) RNA
(d) lipid

Q.13.The microscopic study of tissues is

(a) anatomy
(b) histogenesis
(c) histology
(d) histolysis

Q.14. A plant which has remained unchanged for the past several million years is

(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Maize
(c) Pinus
(d) Ginkgo

Q.15. Exobiology is the study of

(a) external form of living beings
(b) relation of living beings with the external environment
(c) life in the atmosphere of the earth
(d) life in the outer space.

Q.16. A plant called living fossil is ___________________

SECTION C

Q. 19. What is a fossil? Give one example of fossil which is connecting link between reptiles and birds.

Q. 20. List the gases used in the experiment performed by Urey and Miller on the abiotic origin of organic molecules.

Q. 21. Give two examples from plant kingdom to explain that embryological evidences support theory of evolution.

Q. 22. Distinguish between biotechnology and bioinformatics.

Q. 23. Differentiate between homologous and analogous organs.

Q. 24. What do you mean by genetic drift and hybrid break down?

Q.25. What are allopatric and sympatric species?

Q. 26. What is Hardy Weinberg Law?

Q. 27. What is maent by each?

i. Geological time scale
ii. Mass extinction

Q. 28. What do you mean by natural selection. Give an example from human population which justifies this phenomenon.

SECTION D

Q. 29. i. What is meant by homeostasis?
ii. Mention two ways in which sodium chloride functions in our body.
iii. Define ethobiology.

Q. 30. What are Darwin’s finches? How do they support organic evolution?

Q. 31. Elucidate Baer’s Law and is significance.

Q. 32. What is metabolism? Mention the role of enzymes in metabolism.

Q. 33. What are the traditionally regarded basic characteristics that unify all living organisms?

Q. 34. Elucidate the role of biologists in respect of

i. Economic uses of plants and animals
ii. Usage of genetically modified food
iii. Understanding ecosystems.

Q. 35. What is adaptation ? Name two categories of adaptations found in living organisms with one example of each kind.

Q. 36. How does Industrial melanism bring about the action of natural selection?

SECTION E

Q. 37. Describe Lederberg’s Replica Plating Experiment and bring about its significance in the light of Darwinism.

or

What is the relation of sickle-cell anaemia, malaria and natural selection?

Q. 38. i. What are vestigeal organs?
How do vestigeal organs indicate human ancestory?
Explain giving examples.
ii. What is significance of Archaeopteryx in study of evolution?

or

Describe Stanley Miller and Harold Urey’s experiment. What is significance of this experiment?

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BIOLOGY PAPER 3 (CBSE 10+1 BOARD EXAMINATION)

SECTION A

Q.No.1. What is the meaning of binomial nomenclature?

Q.No. 2. In which cells of Nostoc, does nitrogen fixation take place?

Q.No.3. Name a parasitic red alga.

Q.No.4. Who made first attempt on classification of living things?

Q.No. 5. Name a parasitic angiosperm.

Q.No. 6. Name the book written by Charaka.

Q.No. 7. What is chemotaxonomy?.

Q.No.8. What are archaebacteria?

Q.No. 9. What are pyrenoids?

Q.No. 10. What is a taxon?

Q.No. 11 Who is referred as father of Ayurveda?

Q.No. 12 Arrange in ascending order: Speices, Order, Family, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Class.

Q.No. 13. When does meiosis occurs in life cycle of Funaria and Spirogyra ?

Q.No. 14. Who introduced the term species?

Q.No. 15. Give one example of each: acoelomate animal and pseudocoelomate organism

Q. No. 16 Who proposed the binomial system of nomenclature?

Q.No. 17. Name the bacteria that causes syphillis

Q.No. 18. Name 2 bacteria that produce endospores.

SECTION B

Q. 19.Write any four characteristic features of Fungi.

Q. 20. What are the advantages of giving scientific names to the organisms?

Q. 21. What are agarophytes? Give two examples.

Q. 22. What are phycocolloides? Name any two of them.

Q. 23. What are ramenta? Where will you trace them?

Q. 24. Give four classes of pteridophytes.

Q. 25. Name the phylum with which each of the following structures are associated:

i. Gemmules
ii. Nematocysts
iii. parapodia
iv. scutes

Q. 26. Name the larval stages of :

i. starfish
ii. annelida
iii. cnidarians
iv. Balanoglossus

Q. 27. Outline the role of coelom.

Q. 28. What is metagenesis? Name any animal showing it.

SECTION C

Q. 29. What is taxonomic key? How is a key constructed?

Q. 30. Enumerate the characteristic features of gymnosperms.

Q. 31. Enlist the common modes of reproduction in algae.

Q. 32. Give a term for the following:

i. Excretory organ of earthworm
ii. Molluscans with two hinged shells
iii. Muscular part in alimentary canal of birds to store and churn seeds
iv. Excretory organ of cockroach
v. excretory organs of platyhelminthes
vi. Coelom of nematodes

Q. 33. Distinguish between chondrichthyes and osteichthyes. Give one example of each with scientific names.

Q. 34. What are homeotherms? ii. Explain how birds are adapted to aerial mode of life.

Q. 35. Name three basic types of body plans in animals with examples

Q. 36. i. Disntinguish between cryptogams and phaenerogams
ii. Differentiate algae from fungi.

SECTION D

Q. 37. Differentiate bryophyta and pteridophyta and if there are any similarities in them
or

or
Give four characters which all chordates possess at sometime in their life cycle. What are three subphyla into which chordata is classified? Give an example of each.

Q. 38. i. What are triploblastic organisms? Give two examples one with radial symmetry and one with bilateral symmetry.
ii. Give some four differences between platyhelminthes and nematodes. Give an example of each.

or
What are distinguishing characters of vertebrata. Give its classes with examples

or
Draw diagram of ovule of Pinus, describe few significant features and make six labellings.

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ECOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION OF PLANTS

HETEROTROPHIC PLANTS

-They do not manufacture their own food & depends on others
-Usually saprophytes or parasites (total or semi)
Eg. Cuscuta, Cassytha, Orobanche and others

* LIANOID TYPE
Different types of climbers & twiners

* PROSTRATE TYPES
Xerophytic nature and plants possess decumbents & creeping stems

*RENASCENT TYPE
Plants producing leaves & flowers at different seasons of the year

*CACTUS TYPE
Fleshy Stems modified to PHYLLOCLADE ; leaves in form of scales or spines Eg. Opuntia

*SUCCULENT TYPE
Plants with soft & poorly lignified stems

*ROSETTE TYPE
Erect short internode stemmed plant.
Found in open green grasslands or arctic zones

*MUSA TYPE
Pseudostems formed of leaf sheaths.
Large size and herbaceous habit

*ARBOREAL and SHRUBY TYPE (PHANEROPHYTES)
Includes trees & shrubs and possess thick woody tissue

*HERBACEOUS TYPE (THEROPHYTES)
Plants with soft and thin stems of smaller size

*HYDROPHYTES
Plants of Swampy habitat or of marshy habitat containing water more than optimal average for any other plants
They have SPONGINESS in their tissue
– intercellular spaces prominent
– poorly developed root system
– Cuticle or PERIDERM (submerged cork cells) absent
– Stomata generally absent or formless
– feeble mechanical tissue
– conducting tissue poorly developed
– absence or less of secondary growth in stem/roots
– roots absent in floating hydrophytes Eg. Wolffia, Salvinia

Classified into three types
 Submerged
 Floating
 Amphibious

*SUBMERGED HYDROPHYTES
*Grow under water
*Quiet common in our country in pools,tanks,ponds & lakes
*Plant body is thin and delicate
*Usually yellowish green in colour
*Mostly rootless (eg. Urticularia ; Ceratophyllum)
*Poorly developed roots,if developed (Eg. Hydrilla; Spirallis; Vallinsnaria)
*Lleaves are thin and membranous
*Slender stem with mucilagenous cover
*Spongy plant body due to big AERENCHYMA
*Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation
*Root cap absent
*Epidermal cells with chloroplast
*Mesophyll undifferentiated into palisade or spongytissue
*Stomata absent or functionless
*Xylem/Phloem reduced
*Secondary growth absent
*Osmotic pressure of cells is LOW, hence WILT soon when removed from water
*Presence of thin walled parenchyma

*FLOATING HYDROPHYTES

*Free floating
.. Lemna
.. Azolla
.. Salvinia
.. Eichhornia
.. Marsilea

*Fixed floating
…Nymphaea

.. Spirodella
.. Nelumbium

.. Jussiaea

.. Victoria regia

.. Trapa

*AMPHIBIOUS HYDROPHYTES (Emergent anchored hydrophytes)
– grow on shallow water
– extend their roots well above the surface
– roots, part of stem & often portion of leaves are UNDER WATER, but mostly ROOT is AERIAL
– These are WELL ADAPTED in AERIAL & AQUATIC LIFE
– roots well formed
– leaves have thin cuticle
– stomata on both sides of leaves (AMPHISTOMATIC)
– leaves with palisade & spongy parenchyma
– vascular tissue is well developed
– air spaces less developed
– leaves are variously modified
– plants are usually erect
– Eg. Typha, Ranunculus auatilis, Ipomoea aquatica, Sagittaria

** FIVE IMPORTANT ADAPTATIONS OF HYDROPHYTES :

– Reduction or absence of Roots
– Presence of spongy & soft stem
– Astomatic or Amphistomatic leaves
– Presence of air spaces
– reduction of vascular tissue

*XEROPHYTES

-Plants growing on rocks, sandhills, table lands,deserts,alpine peaks
-Plants of relatively dry habitats
-Usually desert loving plants
-Grow on places where water is scarce, abundance of soluble salts in soil, richness of humus acids, low soil temperature, high temperature, and with intense illumination

-Roots are extremely branched,elongated, lot of roothair
-In some herbaceous xerophytes, roots are fleshy as in Dendelion
- In some stem is short and thick
-Mostly they are prostrate (creeping) type
-Certain xerophytes have chlorophyll in their stem Eg. Cactus, Capparis
-Leaves are densely covered with HAIR ( & cuticle) to reduce evaporation of water and light intensity and hence called TRACHOPHYLLOUS
-Leaves are highly reduced in number and in some thick, leathery in texture , hard & stuff; store lot of water Eg. Salvadora, Aloe, Agave, Cactus, Opuntia
-Mostly epidermal cells are cutinized or waxed Eg. Calotropis
-Stomata are very minute and on the lower side of leaves & generally sunken therefore leaves are HYPOSTOMATIC
-Mostly multilayered lignified hypodermis is present
-More of sclrenchyma in their leaves than mesophytes

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Life is not measured by how many breaths we take, but by the momonts that take our breath away

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(CBSE/ NCERT BOARD QUESTIONS SOLVED)

CHAPTER I THE LIVING WORLD

1. Why are living organisms classified?

1. Living organisms are classified in order to:
1. recognize and describe as completely as possible the basic taxonomic units of species
2. devise a method of grouping these units on the basis of their resemblance and relationships.
3. have a common scientific language for having uniform name of organisms all over the world for easy understanding.
2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?
2. The new discoveries by scientists in field of cell biology, genetics and evolution has changed the system of classification from time to time and a need was felt for including, besides gross morphology, other features such as cell structure, nature of cell wall, mode of nutrition, habitat, methods of reproduction and evolutionary relationships.
3. Illustrate the taxonomical hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant and an animal.
3. Hierarchial classification.
The taxonomic hierarchy refers to the framework in which the taxonomic groups are arranged in a definite order from higher to lower categories.
There are seven categories, which are as follows :
1. Kingdom 2. Phylum/ Division 3. Class
4. Order 5. Family 6. Genus
7. Species
For example, the taxonomic hierarchy of mango and dog respectively are as follows:
Kingdom .. Plantae (For Mango) Kingdom .. Animalia (For Dog)
Division .. Angiospermae Phylum .. Chordata
Class .. Dicotyledonae Class .. Mammalia
Order .. Sapindales Order .. Carnivora
Family .. Anacardiaceae Family .. Canidae
Genus .. Mangifera Genus .. Canis
Species .. indica Species .. familiaris

4. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
4. The identification involves determining the name and place of an unknown organism in a system of classification. An organism could be identified with several identification tools or a set of characters called keys. It will help us to determine the similarity of individuals or population with the already known organsims and assign it to a particular taxonomic group .
5. Given below is the scientific name of mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica Mangifera indica
5. Mangifera indica is the correctly written name as initial of specific epithet cannot be capital.
6. Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.
6. •Taxon refers to group of concrete biological objects included in a taxonomical category.
• For example, ‘mammalia’ is a taxon where all animals with mammary glands constitute a group.
• Similarly the word ‘primates’ is a taxon that represents arboreal animals with flattened nails.
• The taxon, ‘Homo’ includes hominids with large brain, speech and long childhood.
• A taxon can be recognized, delimited and described.
7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species ——–> Order ——–> Phylum ——–> Kingdom
(b) Genus ——–> Species ——–> Order ——–> Kingdom
(c) Species ——–> Genus ——–> Order ——–> Phylum

7. ‘c’ is the correct sequence
8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word ‘species’. What is the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one hand and bacteria on the other hand.
8. Species
Species forms the basis of classification.
- A species may be defined as a group of closely resembling organisms, having similar genetic material and are
reproductively isolated.
- The criterion of interbreeding to define a species does not apply to those organisms which reproduce
asexually therefore it is applicable to higher plants and animals but not bacteria
9. Define the following terms:
(i) Phylum (ii) Class (iii) Family (iv) Order (v) Genus
9. (i) Phylum
- A phylum contains/includes all organisms belonging to the different classes that have a few common
characters
(ii) Class
- A class is a group of similar/related orders, that have a few common characters.
(iii) Family
- A family is a group of related genera, that are more similar to one another than with the genera of other families.
(iv) Order
- An order is an assemblage of families, that resemble one another in a few characters.
(v) Genus
- Genus is a group of closely related species. A species cannot be named unless it is assigned to a genus.
10. How Is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
10. • A scheme for identification of plants and animals is called a key,
• Taxonomic keys are based on contrasting characters.
• There are two types of keys, indented and bracketed :

(i) The indented key, which provides sequence of choices between two or more statements of characters of species and the user has to make the correct choice for identification.
(ii) The bracketed key, where pairs of contrasting characters/statements are used ,identification and the number on the right of the statement chosen, indicates the choice of paired contrasting statements.

• To construct keys, we have to first identify the distinguishing features of each members of the group.
• Next, we have to frame questions about them in such a way that only one of the two answers is possible (some
features like present or absent, yes or no)
11. What are the advantages of a botanical garden?

11. (a) Botanical garden provides the visitor to compare plants in their natural living conditions.
(b) They help to get material for botanical research.
(c) They provide on the spot education about the plants.
(d) Botanical garden provides shelter to endangered species.
(e) These gardens also provide acts as a huge library of plants.